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AP ® Biology Practice Exam From the 2 015 Administration NOT E: This is a modified version of the 201 5 AP Biolog y Exam. This Practic e Exa m is provided by the Colleg e Boar d fo r AP Exam preparation . Teacher s ar e permitted to download the material s an d mak e copies to use wit h thei r student s in a classroo m settin g onl y. T o maintai n th e securit y of this exam , teacher s shoul d collec t al l material s afte r thei r administratio n an d keep the m in a secure location . Exam s ma y no t be poste d on schoo l or personal websites, no r electronically redistributed for an y reason. Fu rther distributio n of thes e material s outside of the secur e Colleg e Board sit e disadvantages teacher s wh o rel y on uncirculated questions for classroo m testing . An y additional distribution is in violation of the Colleg e Board ’s copyright policies an d ma y resul t in the terminatio n of Practic e Exa m acces s fo r you r schoo l as well as the removal of access to other online services such as the A P Teache r Communit y an d Onlin e Scor e Repo rts.
Contents Exam Instructions Student Answer Sheet for the Multiple-Choice and Grid- In Section Section I: Multiple -Choice and Grid- In Questions Section II: Free -Response Questions Multiple -Choice and Grid- In Answer Key Free- Response Scoring Guidelines Scoring Worksheet Note: This publication shows the page numbers that appeared in the 201 4−15 AP Exam Instructions book and in th e actual exam. This publication was not repaginated to begin with page 1. © 2015 The College Board. College Board, Advanced Placement Program, AP, SAT and the acorn logo are registered trademarks of the College Board. All other products and services may be trademarks of their respective owners. Permission to use copyrighted College Board materials may be requested online at: www.collegeboard.com/inquiry/cbpermit.html.
Exam Instructions The following contains instructions taken from the 2014−15 AP Exam Instructions book.
30 What Proctors Need to Bring to This Exam • Exam packets • An swer sheets • AP S tudent Packs • 20 14 - 15 AP Coordinator’s Manual • Thi s book — AP Exam Instructions • AP E xam Seating Chart template(s) • Sc hool Code and Home-School/Self- Study Codes • Ex tra calculators • Pen cil sharpener • Co ntainer for students’ electronic devices (if needed) • Ex tra No . 2 pencils with erasers • Ex tra pens with black or dark blue ink • Li ned paper • St apler • Wa t c h • Si gns for the door to the testing room –“E xam in Progress” – “ Cell phones are prohibited in the testing room” SECTION I: Multiple Choice and Grid-In Students are allowed to use four-function (with square root) calculators throughout the entire AP Biology Exam . Graphing calculators and scientific calculators are not permitted for use on the AP Biology Exam . See pages 43–46 of the 2014 - 15 AP Coordinator’s Manual for more information . Before starting the exam administration, make sure each student has an appropriate calculator . If a student does not have a calculator, you may provide one from your supply . If the student does not want to use the calculator you provide or does not want to use a calculator at all, he or she must hand copy, date, and sign the release statement on page 44 of the 2014 -1 5 AP Coordinator’s Manual . Students may have no more than two calculators on their desks . Calculators may not be shared . ! Do not begin the exam instructions below until you have completed the appropriate General Instructions for your group. AP® Biology Exam Regularly Scheduled Exam Date: Monday morning, May 11, 2015 Late-Testing Exam Date: Friday afternoon, May 22, 2015 Section I Total Time: 1 hr. 30 min. Section II Total Time: 1 hr. 30 min. Section I Total Time: 1 hour 30 minutes Number of Questions: 69 * (63 multiple-choice questions plus 6 grid-in questions; 90 minutes) Percent of Total Score: 50% Writing Instrument: Pencil required *The number of questions may vary slightly depending on the form of the exam. Section II Total Time: 1 hour 30 minutes Number of Questions: 8 questions (2 ten-point questions, 3 four-point questions, and 3 three-point questions, 10-minute reading period, 80-minute writing period) Percent of Total Score: 50% Writing Instrument: Pen with black or dark blue ink Note: Four-function calculators (with square root) may be used on all sections of the AP Biology Exam. ? 2015 The College Board. Visit the College Board on the Web: www.collegeboard.org.
31 Make sure you begin the exam at the designated time . Remember: You must complete a seating chart for this exam . See pages 279–280 for a seating chart template and instructions . See the 2014-15 AP Coordinator’s Manual for exam seating requirements (pages 48–50, 88) . If you are giving the regularly scheduled exam, say: It is Monday morning, May 11, and you will be taking the AP Biology Exam. If you are giving the alternate exam for late testing, say: It is Friday afternoon, May 22, and you will be taking the AP Biology Exam.In a moment, you will open the packet that contains your exam materials. By opening this packet, you agree to all of the AP Program’s policies and procedures outlined in the 2014 - 15 Bulletin for AP Students and Parents . You may now remove the shrinkwrap from your exam packet and take out the Section I booklet, but do not open the booklet or the shrinkwrapped Section II materials. Put the white seals aside. . . . Carefully remove the AP Exam label found near the top left of your exam booklet cover. Now place it on page 1 of your answer sheet on the light blue box near the top right-hand corner that reads “AP Exam Label.” If students accidentally place the exam label in the space for the number label or vice versa, advise them to leave the labels in place . They should not try to remove the label; their exam will be processed correctly . Read the statements on the front cover of Section I and look up when you have finished. . . . Sign your name and write today’s date. Look up when you have finished. . . . Now print your full legal name where indicated. Are there any questions? . . . Turn to the back cover and read it completely. Look up when you have finished. . . . Are there any questions? . . . Section I is the multiple-choice and grid-in portion of the exam. Mark all of your responses beginning on page 2 of your answer sheet, one response per question. If you need to erase, do so carefully and completely. Your score on the multiple-choice section will be based solely on the number of questions answered correctly. Four-function calculators (with square root) are allowed. For the grid-in questions, you will solve each problem, write your final numeric answer in the boxes at the top of the grid, and fill in the corresponding circles. Enter your responses for the grid-in questions on page 3 of the answer sheet beginning with number 121. You will receive credit only if the circles are filled in correctly. Please pay close attention to the directions in your exam booklet for completing the grid-in questions. Are there any questions? . . . You have 1 hour and 30 minutes for this section. Open your Section I booklet and begin. AP Exam Instructions BIOLOGY ? 2015 The College Board. Visit the College Board on the Web: www.collegeboard.org.
32 126 3 9 Note Start Time here . Note Stop Time here . Check that students are marking their answers in pencil on their answer sheets, and that they are not looking at their shrinkwrapped Section II booklets . After 1 hour and 20 minutes, say: There are 10 minutes remaining. After 10 minutes, say: Stop working. Close your booklet and put your answer sheet on your desk, face up. Make sure you have your AP number label and an AP Exam label on page 1 of your answer sheet. Sit quietly while I collect your answer sheets. Collect an answer sheet from each student . Check that each answer sheet has an AP number label and an AP Exam label . After all answer sheets have been collected, say: Now you must seal your exam booklet using the white seals you set aside earlier. Remove the white seals from the backing and press one on each area of your exam booklet cover marked “PLACE SEAL HERE.” Fold each seal over the back cover. When you have finished, place the booklet on your desk, face up. I will now collect your Section I booklet. . . . Collect a Section I booklet from each student . Check that each student has signed the front cover of the sealed Section I booklet . There is a 10-minute break between Sections I and II . When all Section I materials have been collected and accounted for and you are ready for the break, say: Please listen carefully to these instructions before we take a 10-minute break. All items you placed under your chair at the beginning of this exam must stay there, and you are not permitted to open or access them in any way. Leave your shrinkwrapped Section II packet on your desk during the break. You are not allowed to consult teachers, other students, or textbooks during the break. You may not make phone calls, send text messages, use your calculators, check email, use a social networking site, or access any electronic or communication device. Remember, you may never discuss the multiple- choice questions at any time in any form with anyone, including your teacher and other students. If you disclose these questions through any means, your AP Exam score will be canceled. Are there any questions? . . . 12 6 3 9 You may begin your break. Testing will resume at . SECTION II: Free Response After the break, say: May I have everyone’s attention? Place your Student Pack on your desk. . . . You may now remove the shrinkwrap from the Section II packet, but do not open the exam booklet until you are told to do so. . . . Read the bulleted statements on the front cover of the exam booklet. Look up when you have finished. . . . Now place an AP number label on the shaded box. If you don’t have any AP number labels, write your AP number in the box. Look up when you have finished. . . . Biology ? 2015 The College Board. Visit the College Board on the Web: www.collegeboard.org.
33 Read the last statement. . . . Using your pen, print the first, middle and last initials of your legal name in the boxes and print today’s date where indicated. This constitutes your signature and your agreement to the statements on the front cover. . . . Turn to the back cover and complete Item 1 under “Important Identification Information.” Print the first two letters of your last name and the first letter of your first name in the boxes. Look up when you have finished. . . . In Item 2, print your date of birth in the boxes. . . . In Item 3, write the school code you printed on the front of your Student Pack in the boxes. . . . Read Item 4. . . . Are there any questions? . . . I need to collect the Student Pack from anyone who will be taking another AP Exam. You may keep it only if you are not taking any other AP Exams this year. If you have no other AP Exams to take, place your Student Pack under your chair now. . . . While Student Packs are being collected, read the information on the back cover of the exam booklet. Do not open the booklet until you are told to do so. Look up when you have finished. . . . Collect the Student Packs . Then say: Are there any questions? . . . Section II begins with a recommended 10-minute reading period. You are advised to take advantage of the reading period to plan what you will write. It is designed to provide you with time to develop your responses. You may begin writing your exam responses before the 10 minutes is over. You may take notes on the pages that contain the exam questions, but your responses must be written on the designated lined pages. Are there any questions? . . . You have 1 hour and 20 minutes to answer the questions. You are responsible for pacing yourself, and may proceed freely from one question to the next. Be sure that you answer all of the questions. If you need more paper during the exam, raise your hand. At the top of each extra sheet of paper you use, be sure to write only your AP number and the number of the question you are working on — for example, Question 1. Do not write your name. Are there any questions? . . . You may now open the Section II booklet and begin the 10-minute reading period. 12 6 3 9 Note Start Time here . Note Stop Time here . After 10 minutes, say: The reading period is over. You should begin or continue writing your responses. 12 6 3 9 Note Start Time here . Note Stop Time here . Check that students are using pens to write their answers in their exam booklets . After 1 hour and 10 minutes, say: There are 10 minutes remaining. AP Exam Instructions BIOLOGY ? 2015 The College Board. Visit the College Board on the Web: www.collegeboard.org.
34 Biology After 10 minutes, say: Stop working and close your exam booklet. Place it on your desk, face up. If any students used extra paper for the free-response section, have those students staple the extra sheet(s) to the first page corresponding to that question in their exam booklets . Complete an Incident Report and include any exam booklets with extra sheets of paper in an Incident Report return envelope (see page 57 of the AP Coordinator’s Manual for details) . Then say: Remain in your seat, without talking, while the exam materials are collected. . . . Collect a Section II exam booklet from each student . Check for the following: • Exam booklet front cover: The student placed an AP number label on the shaded box, and pri nted his or her initials and today’s date . • Exam boo klet back cover: The student completed the “Important Identification Information” area . When all exam materials have been collected and accounted for, return to students any electronic devices you may have collected before the start of the exam . If you are giving the regularly scheduled exam, say: You may not discuss or share these specific free-response questions with anyone unless they are released on the College Board website in about two days. Your AP Exam score results will be available online in July. If you are giving the alternate exam for late testing, say: None of the questions in this exam may ever be discussed or shared in any way at any time. Your AP Exam score results will be available online in July. If any students completed the AP number card at the beginning of this exam, say: Please remember to take your AP number card with you. You will need the information on this card to view your scores and order AP score reporting services online. Then say: You are now dismissed. All exam materials must be placed in secure storage until they are returned to the AP Program after your school’s last administration . Before storing materials, check the “School Use Only” section on page 1 of the answer sheet and: Fill in the appropriate section number circle in order to access a separate AP Ins tructional Planning Report (for regularly scheduled exams only) or subject score roster at the class section or teacher level . See “Post-Exam Activities” in the 2014 -1 5 AP Coordinator’s Manual . Check your list of students who are eligible for fee reductions and fill in the appropriate circle on their registration answer sheets . • • Be sure to give the completed seating chart to the AP Coordinator . Schools must retain seating ch arts for at least six months (unless the state or district requires that they be retained for a longer period of time) . Schools should not return any seating charts in their exam shipments unless they are required as part of an Incident Report . ? 2015 The College Board. Visit the College Board on the Web: www.collegeboard.org.
Student Answer Sheet for the Multiple -Choice and Grid -In Section Use this section to capture student responses. (Note that the following answer sheet is a sample, and may differ from one used in an actual exam. )
Sign your legal name as it will appear on your college applications. Date To maintain the security of the exam and the validity of my AP score, I w\ ill allow no one else to see the multiple-choice questions. I will seal the multiple-choice booklet when asked to do so, and I will not dis\ cuss these questions with anyone at any time after completing the section. I am aware of and agree to the AP Program’s policies and procedures as outlined in the 2014-15 Bulletin for AP Students and Parents, including using testing accommodations (e.g., extended time, computer\ , etc.) only if I have been preapproved by College Board Services for Students with Disabilities.COMPLETE THIS AREA AT EVERY EXAM.USE NO. 2 PENCIL ONLY A. SIGNATURE PAGE 1 AP Exam Label (from Section I Booklet) AP Number Label (from Student Pack) Answer Sheet 2 015 B. LEGAL NAME Omit apostrophes, Jr., II. Legal First Name ? First 12 Letters Legal Last Name ? First 15 Letters MI A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F G G G G G G G G G G G G G G G H H H H H H H H H H H H H H H I I I I I I I I I I I I I I I J J J J J J J J J J J J J J J K K K K K K K K K K K K K K K L L L L L L L L L L L L L L L M M M M M M M M M M M M M M M N N N N N N N N N N N N N N N O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O P P P P P P P P P P P P P P P Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q R R R R R R R R R R R R R R R S S S S S S S S S S S S S S S T T T T T T T T T T T T T T T U U U U U U U U U U U U U U U V V V V V V V V V V V V V V V W W W W W W W W W W W W W W W X X X X X X X X X X X X X X X Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z – – – – – – – – – – – – – 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 A A A A A A A A A A A A A B B B B B B B B B B B B B C C C C C C C C C C C C C D D D D D D D D D D D D D E E E E E E E E E E E E E F F F F F F F F F F F F F G G G G G G G G G G G G G H H H H H H H H H H H H H I I I I I I I I I I I I I J J J J J J J J J J J J J K K K K K K K K K K K K K L L L L L L L L L L L L L M M M M M M M M M M M M M N N N N N N N N N N N N N O O O O O O O O O O O O O P P P P P P P P P P P P P Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q R R R R R R R R R R R R R S S S S S S S S S S S S S T T T T T T T T T T T T T U U U U U U U U U U U U U V V V V V V V V V V V V V W W W W W W W W W W W W W X X X X X X X X X X X X X Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z – – – – – – – – – – 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 0 0 1 1 2 2 3 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 6 12 7 1 8 2 9 3 10 4 11 5 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 S D. EXAM DATE C. YOUR AP NUMBER Month AM PM F. MULTIPLE-CHOICE BOOKLET SERIAL NUMBER H. AP EXAM I AM TAKING USING THIS ANSWER SHEET Exam Name: Form Code: Form: COMPLETE THIS AREA ONLY ONCE. SCHOOL USE ONLY Fee Reduction Granted Section Number Option 1 Option 2 E. EXAM START TIME 0 0 1 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 1 2 0 0 0 1 1 1 2 2 2 3 3 3 4 4 4 5 5 5 6 6 6 7 7 7 8 8 8 9 9 9 G. ONLINE PROVIDER CODE Day 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 L. SOCIAL SECURITY NUMBER (Optional) 104246-00657• UNLWEB315 Q3914/1- 4 COLLEGE CODE 0 0 0 0 1 1 1 1 2 2 2 2 3 3 3 3 4 4 4 4 5 5 5 5 6 6 6 6 7 7 7 7 8 8 8 8 9 9 9 9 M. COLLEGE TO RECEIVE YOUR AP SCORE REPORT College Name State Country Using the college code listed in the AP Student Pack, indicate the ONE college that you want to receive your AP score report. City SCHOOL CODE 0 0 0 0 0 0 1 1 1 1 1 1 2 2 2 2 2 2 3 3 3 3 3 3 4 4 4 4 4 4 5 5 5 5 5 5 6 6 6 6 6 6 7 7 7 7 7 7 8 8 8 8 8 8 9 9 9 9 9 9 School Name State Country J. SCHOOL YOU ATTEND City 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 INTERNATIONAL PHONE I. AREA CODE AND PHONE NUMBER 0 0 0 0 1 1 1 1 2 2 2 2 3 3 3 3 4 4 4 5 5 5 6 6 6 7 7 7 8 8 8 9 9 9 Jan Feb Mar Apr May Jun Jul Aug Sep Oct Nov Dec Month DayYear K. DATE OF BIRTH N. CURRENT GRADE LEVEL Not yet in 9th grade 9th 10th 11th 12th No longer in high school B123456789T 779934
P. LANGUAGE — Do not complete this section unless instructed to do so. 1 2 34 5 67 8 9 A B C D E F G H I A B C D E F G H I A B C D E F G H I A B C D E F G H I A B C D E F G H I A B C D E F G H I A B C D E F G H I A B C D E F G H I A B C D E F G H I If this answer sheet is for the French Language and Culture, German Language and Culture, Italian Language and Culture, Spanish Language and Culture, or Spanish Literature and Culture Exam, please answer the following questions. Your responses will not affect your score. 1. Have you lived or studied for one month or more in a country where the language of the exam you are now taking is spoken? Yes No DO NOT WRITE IN THIS AREA O. SURVEY QUESTIONS — Answer the survey questions in the AP Student Pack. Do not put responses to exam questions in this section. PAGE 2 COMPLETE THIS AREA AT EACH EXAM (IF APPLICABLE). Indicate your answers to the exam questions in this section (pages 2 and 3). Mark only one response per question for Questions 1 through 120. If a question has only four answer options, do not mark option E. Answers written in the multiple-choice booklet will not be scored. A B C D E A B C D E A B C D E A B C D E A B C D E A B C D E A B C D E A B C D E A B C D E A B C D E A B C D E A B C D E A B C D E A B C D E A B C D E A B C D E A B C D E A B C D E A B C D E A B C D E A B C D E A B C D E A B C D E A B C D E A B C D E A B C D E A B C D E A B C D E A B C D E A B C D E A B C D E A B C D E A B C D E A B C D E A B C D E A B C D E A B C D E A B C D E A B C D E A B C D E A B C D E A B C D E A B C D E A B C D E A B C D E A B C D E A B C D E A B C D E A B C D E A B C D E A B C D E A B C D E A B C D E A B C D E A B C D E A B C D E A B C D E A B C D E A B C D E A B C D E A B C D E A B C D E A B C D E A B C D E A B C D E A B C D E A B C D E A B C D E A B C D E A B C D E A B C D E A B C D E A B C D E A B C D E A B C D E 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 5051 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 QUESTIONS 1–75 Yes No 2. Do you regularly speak or hear the language at home? A B C D A B C D You must use a No. 2 pencil and marks must be complete. Do not use a mechanical pencil. It is very important that you fill in the entire circle darkly and completely. If you change your response, erase as completely as possible. Incomplete marks or erasures may affect your score. COMPLETE MARK EXAMPLES OF INCOMPLETE MARKS SELECTED MEDIA EXAMS R W O OTHER EXAMS R W O PT02 TOTAL PT03 Subscore (if applicable) PT04 Subscore (if applicable) ETS USE ONLY Exam Exam 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
/ / / – . . . . . 0 0 0 0 1 1 1 1 1 2 2 2 2 2 3 3 3 3 3 4 4 4 4 4 5 5 5 5 5 6 6 6 6 6 7 7 7 7 7 8 8 8 8 8 9 9 9 9 9 / / / – . . . . . 0 0 0 0 1 1 1 1 1 2 2 2 2 2 3 3 3 3 3 4 4 4 4 4 5 5 5 5 5 6 6 6 6 6 7 7 7 7 7 8 8 8 8 8 9 9 9 9 9 / / / – . . . . . 0 0 0 0 1 1 1 1 1 2 2 2 2 2 3 3 3 3 3 4 4 4 4 4 5 5 5 5 5 6 6 6 6 6 7 7 7 7 7 8 8 8 8 8 9 9 9 9 9 / / / – . . . . . 0 0 0 0 1 1 1 1 1 2 2 2 2 2 3 3 3 3 3 4 4 4 4 4 5 5 5 5 5 6 6 6 6 6 7 7 7 7 7 8 8 8 8 8 9 9 9 9 9 / / / – . . . . . 0 0 0 0 1 1 1 1 1 2 2 2 2 2 3 3 3 3 3 4 4 4 4 4 5 5 5 5 5 6 6 6 6 6 7 7 7 7 7 8 8 8 8 8 9 9 9 9 9 For Students Taking AP Biology / / / – . . . . . 0 0 0 0 1 1 1 1 1 2 2 2 2 2 3 3 3 3 3 4 4 4 4 4 5 5 5 5 5 6 6 6 6 6 7 7 7 7 7 8 8 8 8 8 9 9 9 9 9 121123 122 124125 126 Write your answer in the boxes at the top of the griddable area and fill in the corresponding circles. Mark only one circle in any column. You will receive credit only if the circles are filled in correctly. PAGE 3 DO NOT WRITE IN THIS AREA A B C D E A B C D E A B C D E A B C D E A B C D E A B C D E A B C D E A B C D E A B C D E A B C D E A B C D E A B C D E A B C D E A B C D E A B C D E A B C D E A B C D E A B C D E A B C D E A B C D E A B C D E A B C D E A B C D E A B C D E A B C D E A B C D E A B C D E A B C D E A B C D E A B C D E A B C D E A B C D E A B C D E A B C D E A B C D E A B C D E A B C D E A B C D E A B C D E A B C D E A B C D E A B C D E A B C D E A B C D E A B C D E 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 10 0 101 10 2 10 3 10 4 10 5 10 6 10 7 10 8 10 9 110111 11 2 11 3 11 4 11 5 11 6 11 7 11 8 11 9 120 Be sure each mark is dark and completely fills the circle. If a question has only four answer options, do not mark option E. QUESTIONS 76–120 © 2014 The College Board. College Board, AP, Student Search Service and the acorn logo are registered trademarks of the College Board. QUESTIONS 121–126 A B C D A B C D A B C D A B C D A B C D A B C D A B C D A B C D A B C D A B C D A B C D A B C D 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138139 140 141 142 For Students Taking AP Physics 1 or AP Physics 2 Mark two responses per question. You will receive credit only if both correct responses are selected. QUESTIONS 131–142
X. ETHNICITY/RACE COMPLETE THIS AREA ONLY ONCE. 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Section I: Multiple -Choice and Grid -In Questions This is the multiple -choice and grid- in section of the 2015 AP exam. It includes cover material and other administrative instructions to help familiarize students with the mechanics of the exam. (Note that future exams may differ in look from the following content.) For purposes of test security and/or statistical analysis, some questions have been removed from the version of the exam that was administered in 2015. Therefore, the timing indicated here may not be appropriate for a practice exam.
Instructions Section I of this exam contains 53 multiple -choice questions and 5 grid-in questions . Indicate all of your answers to the Section I questions on the answer sheet. No credit will be given for anything written in this exam booklet , but you may use the booklet for notes or scratch work. For questions 1 through 53, afer you have decided which of the suggested answers is best , completely fll in the corresponding circle on the answer sheet. Fill in only the circles for questions 1 through 53. Because this section ofers only four answer options for each question , do not mark the (E ) answer circle for any question . Give only one answer to each question . If you change an answer , be sure that the previous mark is erased completely . Here is a sample question and answer . AP ® Biology Exam SECTION I: Multiple Choice and Grid-In 2015 DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO. At a Glance Total Time 1 hour, 30 minutes Number of Questions 58 Percent of Total Score 50% Writing Instrument Pencil required Electronic Device Four-function calculator (with square root) For questions 121 through 125, follow the instructions afer question 53 to enter your numeric answers. Write your numeric answer in the boxes at the top of the grid and fll in the corresponding circles for questions 121 through 125. Use your time efectively , working as quickly as you can without losing accuracy . Do not spend too much time on any one question . Go on to other questions and come back to the ones you have not answered if you have time. It is not expected that everyone will know the answers to all of the multiple -choice questions . Your total score on Section I is based only on the number of questions answered correctly. Points are not deducted for incorrect answers or unanswered questions. Form I Form Code 4LBP4-S 20
-3- AP® BIOLOGY EQUATIONS AND FORMULAS AP® BIOLOGY EQUATIONS AND FORMULAS Statistical Analysis and Probability Mean Standard Deviation  s= 2 ( 1 n - i- xx ) = 2 oe e c ( - 2) 1 1 n i i n xx = =  x SE n s = p value Degrees of Freedom 1 2 345678 0.05 3.84 5.99 7.82 9.49 11.0712.5914.0715.51 0.01 6.64 9.2111.34 13.28 15.0916.8118.4820.09 Laws of Probability If A and B are mutually exclusive, then: P(A and B) = P(A) ¥ P (B) Hardy-Weinberg Equations p + q = 1 x = sample mean n = size of the sample s = sample standard deviation (i.e., the sample-based estimate of the standard deviation of the population) o = observed results e = expected results Degree s of freedom are equal to the number of distinct possible outcom es minus one. Mode = value that occurs most frequently in a data set Median = middle value that separates the greater and lesser halves of a data set Mean = sum of all data points divided by number of data points Range = value obtained by subtracting the smallest obser vation (sample minimum) from the greatest (sample maximum) Metric Prefixes Factor Prefix Symbol 10 9 giga G 10 6 mega M 10 3 kilo k 10 –2 centi c 10 –3 milli m 10 –6 micro μ 10 –9 nano n 10 –12 pico p p = frequency of the dominant allele in a population q = frequency of the recessive allele in a pop ulation p 2 + 2pq + q 2 = 1 Chi-Square Table Standard Error of the Mean Chi-Square P(A or B) = P(A) + P (B) If A and B are independent, then:
-4- uuu pH = – log 10 [H +] T2 = higher temperature T1 = lower temperature k2 = reaction rate at T2 k1 = reaction rate at T1 Q10 = the factor by which the reaction rate increases when the temperature is raised by ten degrees Dilution (used to create a dilute solution from a concentrated stock solution) C iVi = C fVf i = initial (starting) f = final (desired) C = concentration of solute V = volume of solution Rate and Growth Rate dY dt Population Growth dN BD dt =- Exponential Growth max dN rN dt = Logistic Growth ( ) dN K N rN dt K - max = Temperature Coefficient Q 10 21 10 2 10 1 Q TT k k Primary Productivity Calculation 2 mg OmL O 0.698 mL × = Lmg L 2 2 2 mL O0.536 mg C fixed mg C fixed ? = LmL O L = (at standard temperature and pressure) dY = dt = amount of change change in time B = birth rate D = death rate N = population size K = carrying capacity rmax = maximum per capita growth rate of population Surface Area and Volume Volume of a Sphere 3 4 3 Vr p = Volume of a Rectangular Solid Vwh= Volume of a Right Cylinder Vr=p 2 h Surface Area of a Sphere 2 4 Ar p = Surface Area of a Cube 2 6 As = Surface Area of a Rectangular Solid surface area of each side A = Â r = radius = length h = height w = width s = length of one side of a cube A = surface area V = volume = sum of all Gibbs Free Energy Δ G = ΔH – TΔ S Δ G = change in Gibbs free energy Δ S = change in entropy Δ H = change in enthalpy T = absolute tem perature (in Kelvin ) Water Potential (Y ) P YY Y=+ S PY = pressure potential SY = solute potential The water potential will be equal to the solute potential of a solution in an open container because the pressure potential of the solution in an open container is zero. The Solute Potential of a Solution S iCRT Y =- i = ionization constant (this is 1.0 for sucrose because sucrose does not ionize in water) C = molar concentration R = pressure constant (R = 0.0831 liter bars/mole K) T = tem perature in Kelvin (ºC + 273)
BIOLOGY Section I 53 Multiple-Choice Questions 5 Grid-In Questions Time —90 Minutes Directions: Each of the questions or incomplete statem ents below is followed by four suggested answers or completions. Select the one that is best in each case and then fill in the corresponding circle on the answer sheet. 1. A genetic counselor is consulted by a young man who is worried about developing Huntington’s disease, an inherited disorder caused by a dominant allele of a single gene. The young man explains that his cousin was recently diagnosed with Huntington’s disease, and the news has caused him to consider his own risk of developing the disorder. Which of the following questions will best help the genetic counselor to evaluate the risk of the young man developing Huntington’s disease and transmitting it to his children? (A) Were you and your cousin born in the same geographical area? (B) Were your parents or grandparents ever diagnosed with Huntington’s disease? (C) Were you in physical contact with a person diagnosed with Huntington’s disease? 2. Over several years, bacteria were isolated from members of a human population and tested forantibiotic resistance. The percent of bacterial isolates that were found to be antibiotic resistant is presented in the graph above for each year of the study. Which of the following conclusions is best supported by the information presented in the graph? (D) Were you ever exposed to substances that are suspected of being mutagens? (A) The greatest increase in antibiotic resistanceoccurred from the first ye ar to the third year of the study. (B) Gene flow in the population occurred at the same rate for the entire duration of the eight-year study. (C) Because evolution in bacterial populations occurs over millions of years, the results are due to random variation. (D) Natural selection over multiple generations is favoring antibiotic resistance in the population of bacteria. Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal. GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. -5-
3. Lobe-finned fishes were present in the oceans of the world approximately 400 million years ago. The first tetrapods (vertebrates that had limbs and could move on land) da te to about 365 million years ago. One hypothesis states that early tetrapods evolved from lo be-finned fishes. Which of the following is the best plan for testing the hypothesis? (A) Determining the number of fins found on lobe-finned fishes from different geographical locations (B) Measuring the proportion of radioisotopes found in fossils of early tetrapods (C) Comparing the arrangements of bones in the fins of lobe-finned fishes and limbs of the earliest tetrapods (D) Sequencing DNA isolated from fossils of lobe-finned fishes to determine the size of the genome 4. Which of the following describes a metabolic consequence of a shortage of oxy gen in muscle cells? (A) An increase in blood pH due to the accumulation of lactic acid (B) No ATP production due to the absence of substrate-level phosp horylation (C) A buildup of lactic acid in the muscle tissue due to fermentation (D) A decrease in the oxidation of fatty acids due to a shortage of ATP Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal. GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. -6-
5. Prairie dogs are small mammals that live in large colonies in burrows in the ground. Prairie dogs that are near their own relatives when a predator approaches are much mo re likely to issue a warning bark than those that are near unrelated prairie dogs. The prairie dogs that hear a warning bark are more likely to hide in their burrows than to remain above ground. However, the prairie dog that gives the warning bark is putting itself at increased risk of being identified and killed by the predator. Which of the following presents the most likely evolutionary explanation for the behaviors described? (A) The warning bark changes the behavior of the related prairie dogs nearby, allowing the prairie dog’s family to have increased survival and reproductive success. (B) The barking prairie dog chooses to warn other prairie dogs, leading to more prairie dogs living above ground. (C) The barking prairie dog is alerting unrelated prairie dogs to the predator, so it is not giving any advantage to its own relatives. (D) The failure of the individual to bark when surrounded by unrelated prairie dogs ensures survival of the individual. 6. One model of a sustainable fisheries practice is for individual fish to be removed from a natural population at a rate equal to the highest possible growth rate of an ideal population. The graph above represents a populat ion of bluefin tuna living along the Atlantic coast. At which labeled point in the graph is the population growth rate the highest? (A) I (B) II (C) III (D) IV Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal. GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. -7-
Questions 7-11 EFFECT OF WATER-SOLUBLE POLLUTANTS ON MEMBRANE PERMEABILITY Treatment Group Treatment Solution* *Concentrations are reported as percent by volume. Mean Absorbance of 460 nm Light ( n = 5) 2 ¥ Standard Error of the Mean (2 ¥SEM) I 70% isopropanol; 30% water 0.164 0.032 II 90% isopropanol; 10% water 0.125 0.100 III 50% acetone; 50% water 0.215 0.034 IV 70% acetone; 30% water 0.274 0.018 V 100% water 0.0950.004 A student formulated a hypothesis that water-soluble pollutants damage living organisms by increasing the permeability of cellular membranes. To test the hypothesis, the student investigated the effect of isopropanol and acetone on beet root cells. The vacuoles of beet root ce lls contain large amounts of betacyanin, a water-soluble pigment that is released into the extracellular envi ronment as a result of increased membrane permeability. The student prepared identical samples of beet root tissue and incubated each sample for 15 minutes in the specific solution for that group. At the end of the incubation period, the student measured the absorbance of 460 nm light for each sample. A greater concentration of be tacyanin in the solution surrounding the beet root cells results in a greater absorbance of 460 nm light. The resu lts of the experiment are shown in the table above. Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal. GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. -8-
7. Which of the following is the dependent variable in the experiment? (A) The percent by volume of isopropanol in the treatment solutions (B) The percent by volume of water in the treatment solutions (C) The length of time each sample was incubated in the treatment solutions (D) The absorbance of 460 nm light by the treatment solutions 8. Which of the following graphs is the most appropriate representation of the experimental data? (A) (B) (C) (D) Questions 9-11 are on page 10. Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal. GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. -9-
9. The illustration above is a model of a typical beet root cell. Based on the experimental results, which of the following best represents the effect of acetone on the permeability of cellular membranes? (A) (B) (C) (D) 10. The student analyzed the data from the investigation and conclude d that the estimate of the mean of one treatment group was unreliable. Which of the following identifies the treatment group most likely to have provided an unreliable estimate of the mean, and correctly explains why the estimate appears unreliable? (A) Treatment group II; it has a lower than expected mean absorbance and the largest standard error of the mean. (B) Treatment group III; it has a higher than expected mean absorbance and the largest standard error of the mean. (C) Treatment group IV; it has a higher than expected mean absorbance and the smallest standard error of the mean. (D) Treatment group V; it has a lower than expected mean absorbance and the smallest standard error of the mean. 11. Based on the data from th e investigation, which of the following is the best scientific question about organisms living in water that is polluted with organic solvents? (A) Do organisms without pigments have a selective advantage in polluted environments? (B) Will organisms living in polluted environments exhibit detrimental effects from an increased permeability of their cellular membranes? (C) Will organic solvents from the environment become incorporated into the cell membranes of organisms living in polluted environments? (D) Should governments place more stringent restrictions on the release of organic solvents into aquatic ecosystems? Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal. GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. -10-
12. Within a forest ecosystem, there is a large amount of diversity among members of a warbler species. Of the following stages of meiosis illustrated for a typical cell, which contributes most to diversity among the warblers? (A) (B) (C) (D) 13. In an experiment, 100 mice were released into a field to which no other mice had access. Immediately after their release, a representative sample of mice was captured, their fur color was recorded, and they were returned to the field. After twenty years, a representative sample of mice was captured and the distribution of fur color was again recorded. Fur Color Initial Distribution (%) Distribution after Twenty Years (%) Brown 80 20 Gray 10 75 Black 10 5 Which of the following could best explain the change in fur color distribution, as shown in the table above? (A) The allele for black fur color is unstable, and over twenty years most of the black fur alleles mutated to become alleles for gray fur. (B) The field was primarily composed of light- colored soil and little vegetation, affording gray mice protection from predators. (C) Sexual selection led to increased mating frequency of black and brown versus gray and brown. (D) The gray mice were harder to catch, and so were underrepresented in the twenty-year sample. Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal. GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. -11-
14. Liver cells manufacture glycoproteins, while adipose cells store fat. Which of the following subcellular structures is likely to be more prominent in liver cells than in adipose cells? (A) Nucleus (B) Golgi apparatus (C) Cytoskeleton (D) Plasma membrane 15. Intravenous (IV) solutions administered to patients are normally isotonic. Which of the following is most likely if an IV of distilled water is administered to a patient? (A) The cells that are exposed to hypotonic solutions will shrink as a result of salt moving into the blood. (B) The liver will secrete additional bile salts into the blood to raise the tonicity of the administered fluid. (C) The cells that are exposed to hypotonic solutions will expand as water moves osmotically into the cells from the blood. (D) The patient’s respiration rate will slow to compensate for the higher levels of circulating blood. 16. The diagram above represents a typical rod- shaped bacterium. Which of the following best describes a feature shown in the diagram that is unique to archaea and bacteria? (A) The organism is surrounded by a cell wall. (B) The organism contains ribosomes. (C) The organism does not have a nuclear membrane surrounding its genetic material. (D) The organism is not capable of making or providi ng itself with ATP. 17. Which of the following best supports the claim that organisms of different domains share a common ancestor? (A) Photosynthesis occurs in chloroplasts, and the citric acid cycle occurs in mitochondria. (B) Glycolysis occurs in both prokaryotic cells and eukaryotic cells. (C) Introns are present in eukaryotic DNA but not in prokaryotic DNA. (D) Errors in DNA synthesis provide some of the genetic variation in a population. Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal. GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. -12-
18. The graph below shows a model of population changes over time in a predator and its prey. Which of the following data would be most helpful in predicting possible disruptions to the relationship between the predator and its prey? (A) Time of day, because as days beco me shorter, nighttime hunting increases (B) Average birth weight of predators, because h eavier offspring will begin hunting at younger ages (C) Numbers of additional predator species, because additional predators will increase competition for prey (D) Prey metabolic rates, because predators are less su ccessful against prey with higher metabolic rates Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal. GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. -13-
Questions 19-22 The three-spined stickleback ( Gasterosteus aculeatus) is a small fish found in both marine and freshwater environments. Marine stickleback populations consist mostly of individuals with pronounced pelvic spines, as shown in Figure 1. Individuals in freshwater stickleb ack populations, on the other hand, typically have reduced pelvic spines, as shown in Figure 2. As represented in Figure 1 and Figure 2, the phenotypic difference between marine and freshwater sticklebacks involves Pitx1, a gene that influences the formation of the jaw, p ituitary gland, and pelvic spine. Enhancer sequences upstream of the Pitx1 genetic locus regulate expression of the Pitx1 gene at the appropriate times and in the appropriate tissues during development. Previous studies have found that a mutation in the hindlimb enhancer interferes with the formation of a pronounced pelvic spine. Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal. GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. -14-
19. Which of the following best describes how sticklebacks in the same population with identical copies of the Pitx1 gene can still show phenotypic variation in the pelvic spine character? (A) The Pitx1 gene is carried on different chromosomes in different individuals. (B) Expression of the Pitx1 gene is affected by mutations at other genetic loci. (C) The genetic code of the Pitx1 gene is translated differently in males and females. (D) The subcellular location of the Pitx1 gene changes when individuals move to a new environment. 20. A mutation that affects Pitx1 gene function in all tissue types is most likely to be at which of the following genetic loci? (A) Hindlimb enhancer (B) Pituitary enha ncer (C) Jaw enhancer (D) Promoter 21. In sticklebacks, which of the following is most likely to occur if the jaw enhancer is disabled instead of the hindlimb enhancer? (A) The jaw and a pronounced pelvic spine develop normally because the Pitx1 gene is expressed in both developing tissues. (B) Neither the jaw nor a pronounced pelvic spine develop normally because there is no Pitx1 gene expression in either developing tissue. (C) The jaw develops normally, but a pronounced pelvic spine does not develop because the Pitx1 gene is expressed in the developing jaw but not in the developing pelvis. (D) The jaw does not develop normally, but a pronounced pelvic spine does develop because the Pitx1 gene is expressed in the developing pelvis but not in the developing jaw. 22. Which of the following describes a possible selective mechanism to explain why freshwater sticklebacks typically have reduced pelvic spines? (A) Reduced pelvic spines increase the likelihood of escaping predators in freshwater environments. (B) Reduced pelvic spines expand the range of foods that can be used as sources of energy in freshwater environments. (C) Reduced pelvic spines result in males becoming effectively invisible to potential mating partners in fre shwater environments. (D) Reduced pelvic spines allow individual fish to pass through narrow waterways on their way to marine environments. Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal. GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. -15-
23. Hydrangea macrophylla is a species of plant with blue or pink flowers. Flower color in Hydrangea macrophylla plants is thought to be determined primarily by soil conditions rather than by inherited differences. Which of the following will provide the most direct evidence that flower color in Hydrangea macrophylla is due primarily to soil conditions? (A) Comparing DNA sequence information for Hydrangea macrophylla to DNA sequence information for a different species of flowering plant (B) Performing a genetic cross between a pink- flowered plant and a blue-flowered plant and then determining the ratio of phenotypes in the offspring (C) Growing cuttings from the same Hydran gea macrophylla plant under controlled conditions that vary only with regard to soil pH (D) Analyzing fossilized re mains of an ancestral species that grew in geographic areas similar to the habitats of modern Hydrangea macrophylla 24. Based on morphological characteristics, the phylogenetic tree above has been developed for species I, II, III, and IV. DNA sequencing has recently been completed for a particular gene found in all four species. The sequencing will provide additional information for answering which of the following questions? (A) Is species I the common ancestor of species II and III? (B) Does species I contain the greatest number of vestigial structures? (C) Are species III and IV the most closely related? (D) Should the positions of species III and IV be reversed? 25. The transmission of information from sensory neurons to interneurons typically involves the (A) exchange of electrons between specialized proteins embedded in the plasma membrane of the sensory neuron to the plasma membrane of the interneuron (B) release of chemical messengers into the space between the axon of the sensory neuron and the plasma membrane of the interneuron (C) transfer of a phosphate group from ATP in the sensory n euron to a protein substrate in the interneuron (D) flow of prot ons down an electrochemical gradient through a gated channel between the sensory neuron and the interneuron Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal. GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. -16-
26. The brain coordinates the circulatory and respiratory systems of the human body. The control of breathing, for example, involves neural pathways among the structures represented in the figure a bove. One important stimulus in the control of breathing is an increase in blood CO 2 concentration, which is detected as a decrease in blood pH. Which of the following best describes the physio logical response to an overall increase in cellular respiration in the body? (A) In response to depleted blood CO 2 levels, the pH sensors send signals di rectly to the rib muscles, resulting in an increase in the rate of CO 2 uptake by the lungs and a decrease in CO 2 utilization by the brain. (B) In response to low blood pH, the pH sensors send a signal to the brain, which then sends a signal to the diaphragm, resulting in an increased rate of breathing to help eliminate excess blood CO 2. (C) In response to high blood pH, the pH sensors send a signa l directly to the lungs, re sulting in a slower rate of breathing, and the lungs send a signal back to the heart once CO 2 availability has been restored. (D) In response to an increased rate of breathing, the rib muscles send a signal to the brain, which then sends a signal to the heart, resulting in a decrease in heart activity and slower flow of blood through the body. Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal. GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. -17-
27. Thyroxin is a hormone that increases metabolic activities within various tissue targets. Low levels of circulating thyroxin trigger the secretion of thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) from the anterior pituitary. TSH secretion then stimulates thyroxin production and release by the thyroid gland. The increased level of circulating thyroxin inhibits further secretion of TSH from the anterior pituitary. Based on the information provided, which of the following can most likely be concluded about the TSH -thyroxin loop? (A) A person taking thyroxin to supplement low thyroxin secretion will produce more TSH. (B) Increased thyr oxin production would cause elevated ribosomal activity in the anterior pituitary. (C) The structure of the loop would lead to elevated thyroid and tissue activity due to positive feedback. (D) The feedback mechanism would maintain relatively constant levels of thyroxin throughout tissue targets. Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal. GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. -18-
28. The Stanley Miller appa ratus demonstrated that organic molecules could assemble spontaneously in an environment lacking free oxygen and containing water, methane, and ammonia in the presence of an abundant energy source, such as an electric discharge. The research was considered supportive of the organic soup hypothesis, which states that the primitive atmosphere provided inorganic precursors from which organic molecules could have been synthesized in the presence of an energy source. Based on subsequent research, the primordial atmosphere was determined to contain less methane and more carbon dioxide. The new data about the composition of the early atmosphere had which of the following effects on origin-of-life hypotheses? (A) Miller’s work was discarded as not relevant to an origin-of-life hypothesis. (B) Miller’s work was used to refute the new hypothesis about the composition of the atmosphere. (C) The organic soup hypothesis was abandoned as no longer being supportable. (D) A new organic soup hypothesis was proposed to account for the new data about the atmosphere. Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal. GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. -19-
Questions 29-33 Ascorbic acid (vitamin C) is an organic molecule necessary for the health of plants and animals. The majority of animals, including most mammals, synthesize ascorbic aci d from organic precursors, but some primates are unable to synthesize ascorbic acid and must instead acquire it fro m dietary sources, such as certain fruits and vegetables. The L-gulonolactone oxidase (GULO) gene encodes an enzyme that catalyzes a required step in the biosynthesis of ascorbic acid. Most mammals carry a functional copy of the GULO gene, but some primates carry only a GULO pseudogene, which is a nonfunctional variant. A comparison of GULO genes and GULO pseudogenes from different animal s can provide insight into the evolutionary relatedness of the animals. In Table I, selected members of some mamm alian groups are listed, along with an indication of their ability to synthesize ascorbic acid. Table II shows an alignment of amino acid coding sequences from homologous regions of the GULO genes and GULO pseudogenes of the organisms listed in Table I. Figure 1 represents the universal genetic code. TABLE I: SELECTED MAMMALIAN GROUPS Group Selected Members Biosynthesis of Ascorbic Acid Nonprimate mammals Elephant, mouse Yes Primate mammals Lemur Yes Orangutan, chimpanzee No Human No TABLE II: DNA SEQUENCE ALIGNMENT* *For each DNA segment, the alternating shaded and unshaded nucleotides indicate the triplet codons of the open reading frame, shown from left (5 ′) to right (3 ′) as the nontemplate (coding) strand. An “− “ indicates the absence of a nucleotide. Relative Positions of Nucleotides in Nontemplate (Coding) Sequence 1 (5 ′) 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 (3 ′) Elephant GA CAC CCA T CTG AA GA AG TCGG AATA C Mouse GA CAG CCA C CTG AA GA AG TCTG AGTA C Lemur GA CAG CCA C CTG AA GA GG TCCG A GTA C Orangutan GA CAG C -A T TG G AA GA AA TCTG AGGA C Chimp GA CA G C -AT TG G AA GA AA TCTG AGGA C Human GA CA G C -A T TG G AA GA AA TCTG AGGA C *For each DNA segment, the alternating shaded and unshaded nucleotides indicate the triplet codons of the open reading frame, shown from left (5 ′) to right (3 ′) as the nontemplate (coding) strand. An “− “ indicates the absence of a nucleotide. Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal. GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. -20-
Figure 1. Universal genetic code. Questions 29-33 are on pages 22 and 23. Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal. GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. -21-
Item 29 was not scored. 30. Comparison of DNA sequences in Table II suggests that a functional GULO gene in lemurs can have a G, C, or T at po sition 21 but only a G at position 2 2. Which of the following pa irs of predictions is most helpful in explaining the discrepancy? A substitution at position 21 would result in A substitution at position 22 would result in (A) No change to the protein A premature stop codon or an amino acid with different biochemical characteristics (B) A different amino acid A premature stop codon or an amino acid with different biochemical characteristics (C) No change to the protein A frame shift producing an inactive protein (D) An amino acid with different biochemical characteristics No transcription of the gene 31. Which of the following is th e most likely effect of the mutation at nucleotide position 7 in the GULO gene of humans? (A) The mutation results in the deletion of th e GULO gene, so no polypeptide can be translated. (B) The deletion of the single nucleotide causes a frame shift, changing the primary structure downstream of the mutation and resulting in a nonfunctional protein. (C) The point mutation causes a substitution of the amino acid isoleucine (Ile) for histidine (His) at position 7, resulting in a protein with higher than normal activity. (D) The substitution of a single nucleotide in the GULO coding region results in a stop codon. This results in a smaller nonfunctional protein. 32. Lemurs ar e primates that live on the island of Madagasc ar off the coast of Africa. Lemu rs have a functional GULO gene and are able to produce ascorbic acid. However, primates that live in other places ( e.g., humans, chimpanzees, and orangutans) h ave a GULO pseudogene and are unable to pr oduce ascorbic acid. Which of the following best explains the genetic variation among primate species? (A) Food sources on the island of Madagascar were defici ent in ascorbic acid, which caused the primates to migrate to the mainland where ascorbic acid–rich foods are more widely available. (B) Human activity on Madagascar, including poaching, drove the other primates into extinction on the island. (C) Food sources where non-Madagascar primates lived provided ample ascorbic acid in the diet, which removed the selective pressure for maintaining a functional GULO gene. (D) Food sources on the island of Madagascar were deficient in ascorbic acid, which caused lemurs to adapt by developing the ability to produce an active GULO protein. Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal. GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. -22-
33. Which of the following phyl ogenetic trees best illustrates (with the X) the point at which the mutation in the GULO gene most likely occurred during the evol utionary history of these organisms? (B) (A) (C) (D) Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal. GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. -23-
34. The cells lining the respiratory tract of pigs have receptors for both avian and human influenza viruses. Based on the model above, which of the following best describes th e origin of the new strain of human influenza virus? (A) The new viral strain inherited a mixture of genetic material from both avian influenza virus and human influenza virus. (B) The new viral strain inherited RNA molecules from th e avian influenza virus and packaged them inside the human influenza virus membrane. (C) The new viral strain inherited a mutant DNA molecule from the pig respiratory tract cell. (D) The new viral strain inherited an RNA molecule th at had recombined with a DNA molecule from the pig respiratory tract cell. Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal. GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. -24-
35. In the “RNA world” model for the origin of life, the first protocells (probionts) relied on RNA, not DNA, for information storage and transmission. Which of the following could best be considered evidence in support of the RNA world model? (A) DNA is more stable than is RNA. (B) Some RNA molecules in contemporary cells have catalytic function. (C) RNA is so complex in both structure and function that it must have preceded DNA . (D) RNA has secondary structure whereas DNA does not. 36. Which of the following pieces of evidence best supports the hypothesis that birds and crocodilians (crocodiles and alligators) are more closely related to each other than they are to other organisms? (A) Modern birds and crocodilians utilize different niches within the same geographical region. (B) Like turtles and snakes, modern birds and crocodilians build nests in which they lay shelled eggs. (C) The skulls of birds and crocodilians have an opening that is absent in the skulls of other reptiles. (D) Fossil evidence indicates that both modern birds and crocodilians originated during the Jurassic Period. Cellular Shape Ratio of Surface Area to Volume Cube 1.7 Regular Tetrahedron 0.5 Cylinder 0.9 Sphere 0.6 37. In an experiment, the efficiency of oxygen exchange across the plasma membrane is being assessed in four artificial red blood cells. The table above lists some properties of those artificial cells. Other conditions being equal, which artificial cell is predicted to be the most efficient in exchanging oxygen with the environment by diffusion? (A) The cuboidal cell (B) The tetrahedral cell (C) The cylindrical cell (D) The spherical cell Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal. GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. -25-
38. To test the hypothesis that a particular plant synthesizes storage lipids by using glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate (G3P) from photosynthesis, a researcher plans to use radiolabeled precursors to track the molecules through the biosynthetic pathway. Which of the following radiolabeled precursors is most appropriate for the researcher to use? (A) 15N-labeled N 2, because atmospheric nitrogen is fixed to amino acids by photosynthesis (B) 14C-labeled CO 2, because atmospheric carbon is fixed to carbohydrates by photosynthesis (C) 35S-labeled methionine , because amino acids are incorporated into lipids during photosynthesis (D) 32P-labeled phosphate , because lipids are stored in plants as phospholipids Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal. GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. -26-
39. Mutations in DNA are usually caused by chemical or radiation damage to DNA molecules, followed by imperfect repair of the damage. Immedi ately after this kind of imperfect repair, there may be a mismatched base pair in the DNA. The illustration below shows an example of a mismatch, with the relevant pair bases in bold. Which of the following best represents the DNA of the two daughter cells produced when a bacterial cell with this particular mismatch replicates its DNA and divides? (A) (B) (C) (D) Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal. GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. -27-
Questions 40-44 Iron is an essential nutrient that is acquired by organisms from the environmen t. When intracellular levels of iron are relatively high, living cells synthesi ze an iron-storage protein called ferritin. The induction of ferritin synthesis by iron was investigated in rats. Figure 1 shows the results of an experiment in which cellular levels of ferritin protein were measured in the presence or ab sence of iron and actinomycin D, a drug that inhibits transcription. Figure 2 shows the results of an experiment in which cellular levels of ferritin protein were measured in the presence or absence of iron and cycloheximi de, a drug that inhibits translation. Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal. GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. -28-
40. Which of the following biotechnology approaches could be used to identify ferritin mRNA in a sample of total cellular RNA? (A) RNA samples could be directly cloned into a DNA plasmid, grown in bacteria, and tested for the ability to bind iron. (B) RNA samples could be separated by size using agarose gel electrophoresis and incubated with labele d single-stranded DNA molecules that are complementary to the ferritin mRNA. (C) RNA samples could be converted to protein and subsequently cut with a restriction endonuclease that recognizes DNA sequences. (D) RNA samples could be examined under a high-power microscope to visually identify the ferritin mRNA. 41. In individuals with iron-rich diets, intracellular levels of iron are higher than in in dividuals with iron-poor diets. Which of the following best explains how organisms regulate ferritin protein levels in response to available iron? (A) Translation of ferritin mRNA is inhibited in the presence of iron. (B) Translation of ferritin mR NA is stimulated by iron. (C) Ferritin protein is more stable in the presence of iron. (D) Ferritin protein is less stable in the presence of iron. 42. The data can best be used to supp ort which of the following claims about the mechanism for regulating ferritin gene expression? (A) Iron increases ribosome binding to ferritin mRNA. (B) Iron causes the ferritin mRNA to be degraded. (C) Iron increases the effect of actinomycin D on RNA polymerase. (D) Iron decreases the ability of ferritin mRNA to bind to ribosomes. 43. The gene sequences respo nsible for the iron mediated changes in ferritin protein leve ls are highly conserved and ar e called iron response elements (IREs). IREs have been observed in a number of genes involved in iron transport and metabolism. The IRE sequences found in the ferritin gene are found in all multicellular organisms, whereas other nonferritin IRE sequences are found only in certain vertebrate organisms. Which of the following is the best explanation fo r the observations? (A) Ferritin IREs arose in the common ancestor of multicellular organisms, whereas nonferritin IREs arose later in specific evolutionary lineages. (B) Nonferritin IREs arose at different times in the common ancestor of multicellular organisms. (C) Ferritin IREs arose in diverse organisms by convergent evolution, while the nonferritin IREs arose b y recombination events between closely related species. (D) Ferritin IREs have e volved independently in different evolutionary lineages, whereas nonferritin IR Es arose in the common ancestor of multicellular organisms. 44. Hereditary hemochromatosis (HHC) is an iron storage disease that results in reduced uptake of iron into cells. Based on the data, which of the following is the most likely effect of HHC on ferritin protein levels? (A) Elevated levels of ferritin protein because there is more iron in th e blood of affected individuals (B) Reduced levels of ferritin protein because there is less iron in the cytosol of affected individuals (C) Elevated levels of ferritin protein because ferritin replaces the mutant protein in affected individuals (D) Reduced levels of ferritin protein because iron stimulates ferritin breakdown Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal. GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. -29-
45. The figure above shows a series of microscope images taken over time of ovalbumin production in chick oviduct cells in response to stimulation with estrogen. The ovalbumin protein was detected using a fluorescent dye as shown by the white areas in the time-lapse sequence. The microscope images indicate that ovalbumin (A) is synthesized on soluble ribosomes and packaged into lysosomes, from which it is secreted into the oviduct (B) is synthesized on ribosomes bound to the rough endoplasmic reticulum, and then secr eted directly into the oviduct (C) crosses the endoplasmic reticulum membrane as it is tr anslated, then moves to the Golgi apparatus, then to vesicles from which it is secreted (D) crosses the Golgi apparatus membrane post-tran slationally, is taken up by the Golgi apparatus and endoplasmic reticulum, then is pack aged into secretory vesicles Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal. GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. -30-
46. Freshwater bony fish secrete large volumes of very dilute urine. Many marine bony fish secrete small volumes of concentrated urine. Which of the following best explains the differences in nitrogenous-waste excretion between freshwater and marine bony fish? (A) The differences arose during divergence, as fish from a common ancestor faced different selective pressures in environments of different osmolarity. (B) The differences resulted from the evolution of kidneys in independent evolutionary lineages that were adapted to different environmental conditions. (C) The differences are accidents of evolutionary divergence and are unrelated to the osmotic differences in freshwater and marine environments. (D) The differences arise in each generation because of the physiological adjustment of individual fish to fluctuating salt concentrations in the environments in which they live. 47. Malaria is caused by seve ral different species of Plasmodium , a protozoan parasite. Plasmodium resistance to the common drugs used to treat malaria has increased in recent years. In a scientific study, Plasmodium samples were analyzed in blood drawn from a large number of infected patients before drug treatment and subsequently from the subset of infected patients with drug-resistant Plasmodium. DNA sequences of four different Plasmodium genes thought to be involved in resistance were compared between samples from patients with drug-sensitive Plasmodium and patients with drug-resistant Plasmodium . Which of the following best supports the hypothesis that preexisting mutations confer drug resistance? (A) Drug resistance can sometimes be reversed by simultaneous treatment with a drug that inhibits the drug-pumping mechanism of Plasmodium . (B) Some of the mutations that occur most frequently in samples from patients treated with antimalarial drugs are detectable in Plasmodium samples collected prior to use of antimalarial drugs. (C) Continued use of the same antimalarial drugs leads to increased Plasmodium resistance. (D) The same mechanism of drug resistance in Plasmodia isolated from separate populations of patients resulted from an accumulation of new genetic mutations. Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal. GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. -31-
Questions 48-50 Insulin, a hormone secreted by pancreatic cells, stimulates glucose uptake in skeletal muscle cells by mobilizing glucose transporter proteins (GLUT4) to the plasma membra ne. As depicted in Figure 1, binding of insulin to the insulin receptor triggers an intracellu lar signaling cascade in which certain mo lecules activate other molecules in a relay of the hormone signal to cell targets. One outcome of the signaling cascade is mobilization of GLUT4 from vesicle storage sites in the cytoplasm to sites at the ce ll surface, where GLUT4 allows glucose to enter the cell. In type 2 diabetes, the cellular response to insulin is disrupted, and individuals with type 2 diabetes cannot properly regulate their blood glucose leve ls. In an investigation of the insulin signaling pathway, samples of skeletal muscle were isolated from individuals who have type 2 diabetes and from individuals who do not. The results of several experiments that were performed on the muscle samples are shown in Figure 2, Figure 3, and Figure 4. Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal. GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. -32-
48. Which of the following is a valid interpretation of the experimental results that explains how individuals with type 2 diabetes differ from individuals without diabetes? (A) The relatively low levels of glucose uptake in individuals with type 2 diabetes indicate that mobilization of GLUT4 to the cell surface is reduced in muscle cells of those individuals. (B) The relatively low levels of glucose uptake in individuals with type 2 diabetes indicate that no functional GLUT4 protein is produced in the muscle cells of those individu als. (C) The absence of activat ed insulin receptors in individuals with type 2 diab etes indicates that no insulin is secreted by the pancreatic cells of those individuals. (D) The absence of activated IRS-1 in individuals with type 2 diabetes indicates that no functional insulin receptor protein is produced in the muscle cells of those individuals. 49. Based on the experimental results, which of the following describes the most likely defect in muscle cells of patients with type 2 diabetes? (A) Insulin receptor proteins do not reach the cell surface. (B) Insulin does not activate its receptor. (C) IRS-1 activation is reduced at high insulin concentrations. (D) GLUT4 blocks glucose from entering cells. 50. Based on the information presented, which of the following genetic changes in an individual without diabe tes is most likely to result in a disrupted cellular response to insulin signaling similar to that of an individual with type 2 diabetes? (A) A deletion in the gene encoding the insulin receptor that removes only the cytoplasmic domain of the protein (B) Duplication of the gene encoding a PI-3 kinase that results in synthesis of a muscle- specific variant of the enzyme in skin cells as well as in muscle cells (C) A mutation in the gene encoding IRS-1 that causes the protein to be active in muscle cells even in the absence of insulin signaling (D) Insertion of a small segment of DNA into the promoter of the Glut4 gene that results in increased synthesis of GLUT4 proteins in muscle cells Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal. GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. -33-
51. Trypsinogen is split by the enzyme enterokinase to form an activated molecule of the protease trypsin. Which of the following would confirm that the activation of trypsin is an example of how a positive feedback mechanism can amplify a biological process? (A) The activated trypsin enzyme can use enterokinase as a substrate. (B) The trypsin produced by the reaction is capable of splitting and activating additional trypsinogen molecules. (C) If levels of trypsin were to get too high, the trypsin molecules would inhibit the enzyme enterokinase. (D) Each mRNA molecule that codes for trypsinogen can be translated repeatedly to form many peptide molecules. 52. Cancer can result from a variety of different mutational events. Which of the following is LEAST likely to result in the initiation of a cancerous tumor? (A) A receptor m utation results in activation of a cell-division pathway in the absence of the appropriate ligand. (B) A mutation results in the loss of the ability to produce a tumor-suppressor protein. (C) A defect in a cell-cycle checkpoint prevents a cell from entering the S phase. (D) At the anaphase checkpoint, separation of chromatids occurs without all centromeres being attached to kinetochore microtubules from both poles. Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal. GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. -34-
53. Which of the following statements is true regarding the movement of substances across cell membranes? (A) Ions are unable to move through the phospholipid bilayer because the nonpolar tail regions of the phospholipids are hydrophobic. (B) Ions are able to move through the phospholipid bilayer because the polar head regions of the phospholipids are charged. (C) Water is able to move through the phospholipid bilayer because the nonpolar tail regions of the phospholipids are charged. (D) Water is unable to move through the phospholipid bilayer because the polar head regions of the phospholipids are charged. Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal. GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. -35-
Directions: The next six questions, numbered 121–125, require numeric answers. Determine the correct answer for each question and ente r it in the grid on page 3 of the answer sheet. Use the following guidelines for entering your answers. • Start your answer in any column, space permitting. Unused columns should be left blank. • Write your answer in the boxes at the top of the grid and fill in the corresponding circles. Mark only one circle in any column. You will receive credit only if the circles are filled in completely. • Provide your answer in the format specified by the question. The requested answer may be an integer, a decimal, or a fraction, and it may have a negative value. • To enter a fraction, use one of the division slashes to separate the n umerator from the denominator, as shown in the example below. Fractions only need to be reduced enough to fit in the grid. • Do not enter a mixed number, as this will be scored as a fraction. For example, 2 1/2 (two and one-half) will be scored as 21/2 (twenty-one halves). GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. -36-
121. The internal temperature of different organisms was determined under various conditions, as shown in the table below. Organism Thermoregulation Strategy Measurement Conditions Internal Temperature Butterfly Ectotherm Resting in the shade 15∞C Butterfly Ectotherm Flying in the sunlight 23∞C Horse Endotherm Resting in the shade 42∞C Horse Endotherm Galloping in a field 43∞C Goose Endotherm Sitting on a nest 41∞C Goose Endotherm Flying above treetops ??∞C Predict the internal temperature (in ∞C)of a goose that is flying just above the treetops when the external temperature is 7 ∞C. Give your answer to the nearest whole number. Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal. GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. -37-
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