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Filename:	[PDF] 2014 AP Biology Practice Exam MCQ Multiple Choice Questions with Answers Advanced Placement.pdf
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Description:	Download file or read online AP past exam paper 2014 AP Biology Practice Exam MCQ Multiple Choice Questions with Answers and FRQ Free Response Questions with Scoring Guidelines - Collegeboard Advanced Placement.

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AP ® Biology Practice Exam From the 2 014 Administration NOT E: This is a modified version of the 2014 AP Biolog y Exam. This Practic e Exam is provided by the Colleg e Boar d fo r AP Exam preparation . Teacher s ar e permitted to download the material s an d mak e copies to use wit h thei r student s in a classroo m settin g onl y. T o maintai n th e securit y of this exam , teacher s shoul d collec t al l material s afte r thei r administratio n an d keep the m in a secure location . Exam s ma y no t be poste d on schoo l or personal websites, no r electronically redistributed for an y reason. Fu rther distributio n of thes e material s outside of the secur e Colleg e Board sit e disadvantages teacher s wh o rel y on uncirculated questions for classroo m testing . An y additional distribution is in violation of the Colleg e Board ’s copyright policies an d ma y resul t in the terminatio n of Practic e Exa m acces s fo r you r schoo l as well as the removal of access to other online services such as the A P Teache r Communit y an d Onlin e Scor e Repo rts.

Contents Exam Instructions Student Answer Sheet for the Multiple -Choice Section Section I: Multiple -Choice Questions Section II: Free -Response Questions Multiple -Choice Answer Key Free- Response Scoring Guidelines Scoring Worksheet Note: This publication shows the page numbers that appeared in the 2013−14 AP Exam Instructions book and in th e actual exam. This publication was not repaginated to begin with page 1. © 2014 The College Board. College Board, Advanced Placement Program, AP, SAT and the acorn logo are registered trademarks of the College Board. All other products and services may be trademarks of their respective owners. Permission to use copyrighted College Board materials may be requested online at: www.collegeboard.com/inquiry/cbpermit.html.

Exam Instructions The following contains instructions taken from the 2013−14 AP Exam Instructions book.

29 AP Exam Instructio\Bns BIOLOGY What Proctors Need to Bring to This Exam • . Exam .packets • . Answer .s heets • . AP .Stude nt .Packs • . 2013-1 4 AP Coor\binator’s Manual . • . This .book .— .AP Ex am Instructions • . School .Co de .and .Home-School/Self- Study .Codes • . Extra .ca lculators • . Pencil .s harpener • . Extra .No . .2 .pencils .with .erasers • . Extra .pe ns .with .black .or .dark .blue .ink • . Lined .pap er • . Staple r • . Watch • . Signs .fo r .the .door .to .the .testing .room . – . “Exam .i n .Progress” . – . .“Cel l .phones .are .prohibited .in .the . testing .room” SECTION I: Multiple Choice and Grid-In Students .are .allowed .to .use .four-function .(with .square .root) .calculators .throughout .the .entire . . AP .Biology .Exam . .Graphing .calculators .and .scientific .calculators .are .not .permitted .for .use .on .the . AP .Biology .Exam . .See .pages .\b2–\b5 .of .the . 2013-14 AP Coor\binator’s Manual .for .more .information . Before .starting .the .exam .administration, .make .sure .each .student .has .an .appropriate .calculator . . . If .a .student .does .not .have .a .calculator, .you .may .provide .one .from .your .supply . .If .the .student .does . not .want .to .use .the .calculator .you .provide .or .does .not .want .to .use .a .calculator .at .all, .he .or .she . must .hand .copy, .date, .and .sign .the .release .statement .on .page .\b3 .of .the . 2013-14 AP Coor\binator’s Manual . .Students .may .have .no .more .than .two .calculators .on .their .desks . .Calculators .may .not . be .shared . ! Do not begin the exam instructions below until you have completed the appropriate General Instructions \bor your group. Make .sure .you .begin .the .exam .at .the .designated .time . . If you are giving the regularly sche\bule\b exam, say: It is Monday morning, May 12, and you will be taking the AP Biology Exam. If you are giving the alternate exam for late testing, say: It is Friday afternoon, May 23, and you will be taking the AP Biology Exam. In a moment, you will open the packet that contains your exam materials. By opening this packet, you agree to all of the AP Program’s policies and procedures outlined in the 2013-14 Bulletin for AP Students and Parents . \bou may now remove the shrinkwrap from your exam packet and take out the Section I booklet, but do not open the booklet or the shrinkwrapped Section II materials. Put the white seals aside. . . . AP® Biology Exam Regul\brly Scheduled Ex\bm D\bte: Mond\by morning, M\by 12, 2014 L\bte-Testing Ex\bm D\bte: Frid\by \bfternoon, M\by 23, 2014 Section I Tot\bl Time: 1 hr. 30 min. Section II Tot\bl Time: 1 hr. 30 min.

30 Biology Carefully remove the AP Exam label found near the top left of your exam booklet cover. Now place it on page 1 of your answer sheet on the light blue box near the top right-hand corner that reads “AP Exam Label.” If .students .accidentally .place .the .exam .label .in .the .space .for .the .number .label .or .vice .versa, .advise . them .to .leave .the .labels .in .place . .They .should .not .try .to .remove .the .label; .their .exam .will .be . processed .correctly . Read the statements on the front cover of Section I and look up when you have finished. . . . Sign your name and write today’s date. Look up when you have finished. . . . Now pr int your full legal name where indicated. Are there any questions? . . . Turn to the back cover and read it completely. Look up when you have finished. . . . Are there any questions? . . . Section I is the multiple-choice and grid-in portion of the exam. Mark all of your responses beginning on page 2 of your answer sheet, one response per question. If you need to erase, do so carefully and completely. \bour score on the multiple-choice section will be based solely on the number of questions answered correctly. Four-function calculators (with square root) are allowed. The grid-in questions have no answer choices. \bou will solve each problem and write your final numeric answer in the boxes at the top of the grid and fill in the corresponding circles. \bou will receive credit only if the circles are filled in correctly. Please pay close attention to the directions in your exam booklet for completing the grid-in questions. Are there any questions? . . . \bou have 1 hour and 30 minutes for this section. Open your Section I booklet and begin. 12 6 3 9 .Note .Start .Time .here . . .Note .Stop .Time .here . . .Check .that .students .are . marking .their .answers .in .pencil .on .their .answer .sheets, .and .that .they .are .not .looking .at .their . shrinkwrapped .Section .II .booklets . .After .1 .hour .and .30 .minutes, .say: . Stop working. Close your booklet and put your answer sheet on your desk, face up. Make sure you have your AP number label and an AP Exam label on page 1 of your answer sheet. I will now collect your answer sheet. Collect .an .answer .sheet .from .each .student . .Check .that .each .answer .sheet .has .an .AP .number .label . and .an .AP .Exam .label . .Then .say: Now you must seal your exam booklet. Remove the white seals from the backing and press one on each area of your exam booklet cover marked “PLACE SEAL HERE.” Fold each seal over the back cover. When you have finished, place the booklet on your desk, face up. I will now collect your Section I booklet. . . . Collect .a .Section .I .booklet .from .each .student . .Check .that .each .student .has .signed .the .front .cover . of .the .sealed .Section .I .booklet .

31 AP Exam Instructio\Bns BIOLOGY There .is .a .10-minute .break .between .Sections .I .and .II . .When .all .Section .I .materials .have .been . collected .and .accounted .for .and .you .are .ready .for .the .break, .say: Please listen carefully to these instructions before we take a 10-minute break. Everything you placed under your chair at the beginning of the exam must stay there. Leave your shrinkwrapped Section II packet on your desk during the break. \bou are not allowed to consult teachers, other students, or textbooks about the exam during the break. \bou may not make phone calls, send text messages, use your calculators, check email, use a social networking site, or access any electronic or communication device. Remember, you are not allowed to discuss the multiple-choice section of this exam. If you do not follow these rules, your score could be canceled. Are there any questions? . . . 126 3 9 \bou may begin your break. Testing will resume at . SECTION II: Free Response After .the .break, .say: May I have everyone’s attention? Place your Student Pack on your desk. . . . \bou may now remove the shrinkwrap from the Section II packet, but do not ope n the exam booklet until you are told to do so. . . . Read the bulleted statements on the front cover of the exam booklet. Look up when you have finished. . . . Now place an AP number label on the shaded box. If you don’t have any AP number labels, write your AP number in the box. Look up when you have finished. . . . Read the last statement. . . . Using your pen, print the first, middle and last initials of your legal name in the boxes and print today’s date where indicated. This constitutes your signature and your agreement to the statements on the front cover. . . . Turn to the back cover and complete Item 1 under “Important Identification Information.” Print the first two letters of your last name and the first letter of your first name in the boxes. Look up when you have finished. . . . In Item 2, print your date of birth in the boxes. . . . In Item 3, write the school code you printed on the front of your Student Pack in the boxes. . . . Read Item 4. . . . Are there any questions? . . . I need to collect the Student Pack from anyone who will be taking another AP Exam. \bou may keep it only if you are not taking any other AP Exams this year. If you have no other AP Exams to take, place your Student Pack under your chair now. . . .

32 Biology While Student Packs are being collected, read the information on the back cover of the exam booklet. Do not open the booklet until you are told to do so. Look up when you have finished. . . . Collect .the .Student .Packs . .Then .say: Are there any questions? . . . Section II begins with a 10-minute reading period. During the reading period, you will read the questions and plan your answers to the questions. \bou may use the unlined pages of this booklet to organize your answers and for scratch work, but you must write your answers on the lined pages provided for each question. Answers must be written in ink. Are there any questions? . . . \bou may now open the Section II booklet and begin the 10-minute reading period. 126 3 9 Note .Start .Time .here . . .Note .Stop .Time .here . . .Check .that .students .are . writing .any .notes .in .the .appropriate .areas .in .the .Section .II .booklet . .If .any .students .begin .writing . their .responses .during .this .time, .remind .them .that .the .reading .period .is .not .yet .over, .and .that . the .reading .period .is .designed .to .provide .students .with .time .to .develop .better .organized, .higher . scoring .responses . .If .the .students .choose .to .continue .writing .responses, .take .no .further .action . . After .10 .minutes, .say: Stop. The reading period is over. \bou have 1 hour and 20 minutes to answer the questions. \bou are responsible for pacing yourself, and may proceed freely from one question to the next. If you need more paper during the exam, raise your hand. At the top of each extra piece of paper you use, be sure to write only your AP number and the number of the question you are working on. Do not write your name. Are there any questions? . . . \bou may begin. 12 6 3 9 Note .Start .Time .here . . .Note .Stop .Time .here . . .Check .that .students .are . using .pens .to .write .their .answers .in .their .exam .booklets . .After .1 .hour .and .10 .minutes, .say: There are 10 minutes remaining. After .10 .minutes, .say: . Stop working and close your exam booklet. Place it on your desk, face up. If .any .students .used .extra .paper .for .the .free-response .section, .have .those .students .staple .the .extra . sheet/s .to .the .first .page .corresponding .to .that .question .in .their .exam .booklets . .Then .say: Remain in your seat, without talking, while the exam materials are collected. . . . Collect .a .Section .II .exam .booklet .from .each .student . .Check .for .the .following: . • .Exam .booklet .front .cover: .The .student .placed .an .AP .number .label .on .the .shaded .box, .and . pri nted .his .or .her .initials .and .today’s .date . . • .Exam .booklet .back .cover: .The .student .completed .the .“Important .Identification . Information” .area .

33 AP Exam Instructio\Bns BIOLOGY When .all .exam .materials .have .been .collected .and .accounted .for, .return .to .students .any .electronic . devices .you .may .have .collected .before .the .start .of .the .exam . . If you are giving the regularly sche\bule\b exam, say: \bou may not discuss or share these specific free-response questions with anyone unless they are released on the College Board website in about two days. \bour AP score results will be available online in July. If you are giving the alternate exam for late testing, say: None of the questions in this exam may ever be discussed or shared in any way at any time. \bour AP score results will be available online in July. If .any .students .completed .the .AP .number .card .at .the .beginning .of .this .exam, .say: Please remember to take your AP number card with you. \bou will need the information on this card to view your scores and order AP score reporting services online. Then .say: \bou are now dismissed. All .exam .materials .should .be .put .in .secure .storage .until .they .are .returned .to .the .AP .Program . after .your .school’s .last .administration . .Before .storing .materials, .check .the .“School .Use .Only” . section .on .page .1 .of .the .answer .sheet .and: . • .Fill .in .the .appropriate .section .number .circle .in .order .to .access .a .separate .AP . . Ins tructional .Planning .Report .(for .regularly .scheduled .exams .only) .or .subject . . score .roster .at .the .class .section .or .teacher .level . .See .“Post-Exam .Activities” .in .the . . 2013-14 AP Coor\binator’s Manual . . . • .Check .your .list .of .students .who .are .eligible .for .fee .reductions .and .fill .in .the . . appropriate .circle .on .their .registration .answer .sheets .

Student Answer Sheet for the Multiple -Choice Section Use this section to capture student responses. (Note that the following answer sheet is a sample, and may differ from one used in an actual exam. )

Sign your legal name as it will\. appear on your college applic\.ations. Date To maintain the security of the exam and the validity of my AP score, \b will allow no one else to see the multiple-choice questions. \b will seal the multiple-choice booklet when asked to do so, and \b will not discuss these questions with anyone at any time after completing the section. \b am aware of and agree to the AP Program’s policies and procedures as outlined in the 2013-14 Bulletin for AP Students and Parents, including using testing accommodations (e.g., extended time, computer, etc.) only if \b have been preapproved by College Board Services for Students with \vDisabilities.COMPLETE THIS AREA AT EVERY EXAM. USE NO. 2 PENCIL ONLY A. SIGNATURE GE 1AP anuyC\bFu \bGHI JKLMFueHNOPMQuluRMMTIHOU\. anu.VFGHLu \bGHIuJKLMFueOVWHQOun\bNTU OHHZeuLHY 1 X B Q – a D Rpu yAa u.agy iFPOu\b2MXOLM2ZHX3u4Lp3ullp H5\bIu6PLXOu.\bFHu7u6PLXOuBDu HOOHLX H5\bIu \bXOu.\bFHu7u6PLXOuB8u HOOHLX gl A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D \b \b \b \b \b \b \b \b \b \b \b \b \b \b \b F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F G G G G G G G G G G G G G G G H H H H H H H H H H H H H H H I I I I I I I I I I I I I I I J J J J J J J J J J J J J J J K K K K K K K K K K K K K K K L L L L L L L L L L L L L L L M M M M M M M M M M M M M M M N N N N N N N N N N N N N N N O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O P P P P P P P P P P P P P P P Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q R R R R R R R R R R R R R R R S S S S S S S S S S S S S S S T T T T T T T T T T T T T T T U U U U U U U U U U U U U U U V V V V V V V V V V V V V V V W W W W W W W W W W W W W W W X X X X X X X X X X X X X X X Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z – – – – – – – – – – – – – 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 A A A A A A A A A A A A A B B B B B B B B B B B B B C C C C C C C C C C C C C D D D D D D D D D D D D D \b \b \b \b \b \b \b \b \b \b \b \b \b F F F F F F F F F F F F F G G G G G G G G G G G G G H H H H H H H H H H H H H I I I I I I I I I I I I I J J J J J J J J J J J J J K K K K K K K K K K K K K L L L L L L L L L L L L L M M M M M M M M M M M M M N N N N N N N N N N N N N O O O O O O O O O O O O O P P P P P P P P P P P P P Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q R R R R R R R R R R R R R S S S S S S S S S S S S S T T T T T T T T T T T T T U U U U U U U U U U U U U V V V V V V V V V V V V V W W W W W W W W W W W W W X X X X X X X X X X X X X Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z – – – – – – – – – – 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 0 0 1 1 2 2 3 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 6 12 7 1 8 2 9 3 10 4 11 5 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 S 9puuywagu9aoy Spuuticmuanu.cgRym Month AM PM F. MULTIPLE-CHOICE BOOKL\NET SERIAL NUMBER rpuuanuywaguluagu oahl.Aucel.Auorleu a.exymueryyo \bxam Name: Form Code: Form: COMPLETE THIS AREA ONLY ONCE. SCHOOL USE ONLY Fee Reduction Gr\bnted Section Number Option 1 Option 2 E. EXAM START TIME 0 0 1 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 1 2 773898 0 0 0 1 1 1 2 2 2 3 3 3 4 4 4 5 5 5 6 6 6 7 7 7 8 8 8 9 9 9 G. ONLINE PROVIDER CODE Day 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 L. SOCIAL SECURITY NUMBER (Option\bl) 99735-00657• UNLW\bB114 Q3779/1-4 COLLEGE CODE 0 0 0 0 1 1 1 1 2 2 2 2 3 3 3 3 4 4 4 4 5 5 5 5 6 6 6 6 7 7 7 7 8 8 8 8 9 9 9 9 M. COLLEGE TO RECEIVE YOUR AP SCORE REPORT College Name State Country Using the college \.code listed in the AP Student Pack, indicate the ONE college that you want to receive your AP score report. City SCHOOL CODE 0 0 0 0 0 0 1 1 1 1 1 1 2 2 2 2 2 2 3 3 3 3 3 3 4 4 4 4 4 4 5 5 5 5 5 5 6 6 6 6 6 6 7 7 7 7 7 7 8 8 8 8 8 8 9 9 9 9 9 9 School Name State Country J. SCHOOL YOU ATTEND City 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 INTERNATIONAL PHONE I. AREA CODE AND PHONE NUMBER 0 0 0 0 1 1 1 1 2 2 2 2 3 3 3 3 4 4 4 5 5 5 6 6 6 7 7 7 8 8 8 9 9 9 Jan Feb Mar Apr May Jun Jul Aug Sep Oct Nov Dec Month Day Year K. DATE OF BIRTH .puuScmmy.ou Ama9yu ysy Not yet in 9th grade 9th 10th 11th 12th No longer in high school B123456789T

P. LANGUAGE — Do not complete this section unle\Nss instructed to do so. 1 2 34 5 67 8 9 A B C D \b F G H I A B C D \b F G H I A B C D \b F G H I A B C D \b F G H I A B C D \b F G H I A B C D \b F G H I A B C D \b F G H I A B C D \b F G H I A B C D \b F G H I If this \bnswer sheet is for the French L\bngu\bge \bnd Culture, Germ\bn L\bngu\bge \bnd Culture, It\bli\bn L\bngu\bge \bnd Culture, Sp\bnish L\bngu\bge \bnd Culture, or Sp\bnish Liter\bture \bnd Culture Ex\bm, ple\bse \bnswer the following questions. Your responses will not \bffect your score. 1. Have you lived or studied for one month or mo\.re in a country where the language of \.the exam you are now taking is spoken? Yes No DO NOT WRITE IN THIS AREA O. SURVEY QUESTIONS — Answer the survey questions in the \NAP Student P\bck. Do not put responses to ex\bm questions in this\N section. PAGE 2 COMPLETE THIS AREA AT EACH EXAM (IF APPLICABLE) Indic\bte your \bnswers to the ex\bm questions in this\N section (p\bges 2 \bnd 3). M\brk only one response per question\N. If \b question h\bs onl\Ny four \bnswer options, do not m\brk option E. Answers written in the multiple-choice booklet will not be scored. A B C D \b A B C D \b A B C D \b A B C D \b A B C D \b A B C D \b A B C D \b A B C D \b A B C D \b A B C D \b A B C D \b A B C D \b A B C D \b A B C D \b A B C D \b A B C D \b A B C D \b A B C D \b A B C D \b A B C D \b A B C D \b A B C D \b A B C D \b A B C D \b A B C D \b A B C D \b A B C D \b A B C D \b A B C D \b A B C D \b A B C D \b A B C D \b A B C D \b A B C D \b A B C D \b A B C D \b A B C D \b A B C D \b A B C D \b A B C D \b A B C D \b A B C D \b A B C D \b A B C D \b A B C D \b A B C D \b A B C D \b A B C D \b A B C D \b A B C D \b A B C D \b A B C D \b A B C D \b A B C D \b A B C D \b A B C D \b A B C D \b A B C D \b A B C D \b A B C D \b A B C D \b A B C D \b A B C D \b A B C D \b A B C D \b A B C D \b A B C D \b A B C D \b A B C D \b A B C D \b A B C D \b A B C D \b A B C D \b A B C D \b A B C D \b 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 5051 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 QUESTIONS 1–75 Yes No 2. Do you regularly speak or hear th\.e language at home\.? L GL 1L xL 2 L GL 1L xL 2 You must use \b No. 2 pencil \bnd m\brks must be complete. Do not use \b mech\bnic\bl pencil. It is very important that you fill in the entire circle darkly and completely. If you change your response, erase as completely as possible. Incomplete marks or erasures may affect your score. COMPLETE MARK EXAMPLES OF INCOMPLETE MARKS

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ZIP OR POSTAL CODECOUNTRY CODE PAGE 4 STREET ADDRESS (include street number, street name, apartment number, etc.) CITY A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D \b \b \b \b \b \b \b \b \b \b \b \b \b \b \b \b \b \b \b \b \b \b \b \b \b \b F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F G G G G G G G G G G G G G G G G G G G G G G G G G G H H H H H H H H H H H H H H H H H H H H H H H H H H I I I I I I I I I I I I I I I I I I I I I I I I I I J J J J J J J J J J J J J J J J J J J J J J J J J J K K K K K K K K K K K K K K K K K K K K K K K K K K L L L L L L L L L L L L L L L L L L L L L L L L L L M M M M M M M M M M M M M M M M M M M M M M M M M M N N N N N N N N N N N N N N N N N N N N N N N N N N O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O P P P P P P P P P P P P P P P P P P P P P P P P P P Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q R R R R R R R R R R R R R R R R R R R R R R R R R R S S S S S S S S S S S S S S S S S S S S S S S S S S T T T T T T T T T T T T T T T T T T T T T T T T T T U U U U U U U U U U U U U U U U U U U U U U U U U U V V V V V V V V V V V V V V V V V V V V V V V V V V W W W W W W W W W W W W W W W W W W W W W W W W W W X X X X X X X X X X X X X X X X X X X X X X X X X X Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 / / / / / / / / / / / / / / / / / / / / / / / / A A A A A A A A A A A A A B B B B B B B B B B B B B C C C C C C C C C C C C C D D D D D D D D D D D D D \b \b \b \b \b \b \b \b \b \b \b \b \b F F F F F F F F F F F F F G G G G G G G G G G G G G H H H H H H H H H H H H H I I I I I I I I I I I I I J J J J J J J J J J J J J K K K K K K K K K K K K K L L L L L L L L L L L L L M M M M M M M M M M M M M N N N N N N N N N N N N N O O O O O O O O O O O O O P P P P P P P P P P P P P Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q R R R R R R R R R R R R R S S S S S S S S S S S S S T T T T T T T T T T T T T U U U U U U U U U U U U U V V V V V V V V V V V V V W W W W W W W W W W W W W X X X X X X X X X X X X X Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z A A A A A A A A A B B B B B B B B B C C C C C C C C C D D D D D D D D D \b \b \b \b \b \b \b \b \b F F F F F F F F F G G G G G G G G G H H H H H H H H H I I I I I I I I I J J J J J J J J J K K K K K K K K K L L L L L L L L L M M M M M M M M M N N N N N N N N N O O O O O O O O O P P P P P P P P P Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q R R R R R R R R R S S S S S S S S S T T T T T T T T T U U U U U U U U U V V V V V V V V V W W W W W W W W W X X X X X X X X X Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 / / / / / / / 0 0 0 1 1 1 2 2 2 3 3 3 4 4 4 5 5 5 6 6 6 7 7 7 8 8 8 9 9 9 Q. 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Section I: Multiple -Choice Questions This is the multiple -choice section of the 2014 AP exam. It includes cover material and other administrative instructions to help familiarize students with the mechanics of the exam. (Note that future exams may differ in look from the following content.)

AP ® Biology Exam SECTION I: Multiple Choice and Grid-In 2014 DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO. At a Glance Total Time 1 hour, 30 minutes Number of Questions 58 Percent of Total Score 50% Writing Instrument Pencil required Electronic Device Instructions Section I of this exam contains 53 multiple -choice questions and 5 grid-in questions . Indicate all of your answers to the Section I questions on the answer sheet. No credit will be given for anything written in this exam booklet , but you may use the booklet for notes or scratch work. For questions 1 through 53, after you have decided which of the suggested answers is best , completely fill in the corresponding circle on the answer sheet. Fill in only the circles for questions 1 through 53. Because this section offers only four answer options for each question , do not mark the (E ) answer circle for any question . Give only one answer to each question . If you change an answer , be sure that the previous mark is erased completely . Here is a sample question and answer . For questions 121 through 125, follow the instructions after question 53 to enter your numeric answers. Write your numeric answer in the boxes at the top of the grid and fill in the corresponding circles for questions 121 through 125. Use your time effectively , working as quickly as you can without losing accuracy . Do not spend too much time on any one question . Go on to other questions and come back to the ones you have not answered if you have time. It is not expected that everyone will know the answers to all of the multiple -choice questions . Your total score on Section I is based only on the number of questions answered correctly. Points are not deducted for incorrect answers or unanswered questions. Four-function calculator (with square root)

-3- AP® BIOLOGY EQUATIONS AND FORMULAS AP® BIOLOGY EQUATIONS AND FORMULAS Statistical Analysis and Probability Mean Standard Deviation  s= 2 ( 1 n - i- xx ) = 2 oe e c ( - 2) 1 1 n i i n xx = =  x SE n s = p value Degrees of Freedom 1 2 345678 0.05 3.84 5.99 7.82 9.49 11.0712.5914.0715.51 0.01 6.64 9.2111.34 13.28 15.0916.8118.4820.09 Laws of Probability If A and B are mutually exclusive, then: P(A and B) = P(A) ¥ P (B) Hardy-Weinberg Equations p + q = 1 x = sample mean n = size of the sample s = sample standard deviation (i.e., the sample-based estimate of the standard deviation of the population) o = observed results e = expected results Degree s of freedom are equal to the number of distinct possible outcom es minus one. Mode = value that occurs most frequently in a data set Median = middle value that separates the greater and lesser halves of a data set Mean = sum of all data points divided by number of data points Range = value obtained by subtracting the smallest obser vation (sample minimum) from the greatest (sample maximum) Metric Prefixes Factor Prefix Symbol 10 9 giga G 10 6 mega M 10 3 kilo k 10 –2 centi c 10 –3 milli m 10 –6 micro μ 10 –9 nano n 10 –12 pico p p = frequency of the dominant allele in a population q = frequency of the recessive allele in a pop ulation p 2 + 2pq + q 2 = 1 Chi-Square Table Standard Error of the Mean Chi-Square P(A or B) = P(A) + P (B) If A and B are independent, then:

-4- uuu pH = – log 10 [H +] T2 = higher temperature T1 = lower temperature k2 = reaction rate at T2 k1 = reaction rate at T1 Q10 = the factor by which the reaction rate increases when the temperature is raised by ten degrees Dilution (used to create a dilute solution from a concentrated stock solution) C iVi = C fVf i = initial (starting) f = final (desired) C = concentration of solute V = volume of solution Rate and Growth Rate dY dt Population Growth dN BD dt =- Exponential Growth max dN rN dt = Logistic Growth ( ) dN K N rN dt K - max = Temperature Coefficient Q 10 21 10 2 10 1 Q TT k k        Primary Productivity Calculation 2 mg OmL O 0.698 mL × = Lmg L 2 2 2 mL O0.536 mg C fixed mg C fixed × LmL O L = (at standard temperature and pressure) dY = dt = amount of change change in time B = birth rate D = death rate N = population size K = carrying capacity rmax = maximum per capita growth rate of population Surface Area and Volume Volume of a Sphere 3 4 3 Vr p = Volume of a Rectangular Solid Vwh= Volume of a Right Cylinder Vr=p 2 h Surface Area of a Sphere 2 4 Ar p = Surface Area of a Cube 2 6 As = Surface Area of a Rectangular Solid surface area of each side A= Â r = radius  = length h = height w = width s = length of one side of a cube A = surface area V = volume  = sum of all Gibbs Free Energy Δ G = ΔH – TΔ S Δ G = change in Gibbs free energy Δ S = change in entropy Δ H = change in enthalpy T = absolute tem perature (in Kelvin ) Water Potential (Y ) P YY Y=+ S PY = pressure potential SY = solute potential The water potential will be equal to the solute potential of a solution in an open container because the pressure potential of the solution in an open container is zero. The Solute Potential of a Solution S iCRT Y =- i = ionization constant (this is 1.0 for sucrose because sucrose do es not ionize in water) C = molar concentration R = pressure constant ( R = 0.0831 liter bars/mole K) T = temperature in Kelvin (ºC + 273)

Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal. GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. -5- BIOLOGY Section I 53 Multiple -Choice Questions 5 Grid-In Questions Time —90 Minutes Directions: Each of the questions or incomplete stat ements below is followed by four suggested answers or co mpletions. Select the one that is best in each case and then fill in the corresponding circle on the answer sheet. 1. The lion fish is a venomous fish found prima rily in the Red Sea and the In dian Ocean. In the 1990s, lionfish were accidentally releas ed into the Atlantic Ocean, where they found abundant resources and favorable environmental conditions. Which of the following scenarios is most likely to result in the li onfish having a major impact on the communities into which they were introduced? (A) With no natural predators, the lionfish populatio n will become very large. (B) Some native species of invertebrate s will develop a resistance to lionfish venom. (C) Random mating will allow the lionfish population to reach Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium. (D) A virus that specifically infects lionfish will become more prevalent. 2. Cell communication is critical for the function of both unicellular and multicellular eukaryotes. Which of the following is likely true of cell signaling? (A) Cell signaling uses the highest molecular weight molecules found in living cells. (B) Cell signaling has largely been replaced by other cell functions in higher mammals. (C) Similar cell signaling pathways in diverse eukaryotes are evidence of conserved evolutionary processes. ( D) Cell signa ling functions mainl y during early developmental stages.

Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal. GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. -6- 3. A colony of termites was exposed to an atmosphere of 100 percent oxygen for three days. The insects were not immediately harmed by the treatment, but the protozoa that lived in the termites’ guts were eliminated. The treated termites continued to beha ve normally and to eat wood, but they began to starve after a short time. When the treated termites were instead fed wood contaminated with the feces of untreated termites, the treated termites regained the ability to digest wood and no longer starved. The best analysis of the results of the experiment is that (A) infection with protozoa causes the termit es to switch to fermentation (B) cooperative interactions between the termites and the protozoa allow termites to extract energy from wood to survive (C) the termite immune system eliminates protozoa from the gut (D) termites digest protozoa as their main source of energy 4. Ethylene is an organic co mpound produced by ripening fruits. In a controlled experiment, researchers found that ethylene gas stimulated the ripening process in newly harvested fruits. Which of the following describes the most likely connection between natural ethylene production and fruit ripening? (A) As a result of metabolic inactivity, newly harvested fruits are unable to absorb ethylene gas from the atmosphere. (B) Ethylene gas is a chemical signal through which ripening fruits trigger the ripening process in other fruits. (C) Because of normal phenotypic variation, only some of the fruits in a given generation are expected to produce ethylene gas. (D) The rate of ethylene gas production by ripening fruits is an indicator of the relative age of an ecosystem.

Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal. GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. -7- 5. Water in a pond contaminated with the weed killer atrazine is suspected of inhibiting metamorphosis in northern leopard frogs. A team of scientists collected fertilized northern leopard frog eggs from a different pond that is not contaminated. Which of the following is the best experimental design to determine whether atrazine is responsible for inhibiting metamorphosis in northern leopard frogs? (A) Place half of the fertilized eggs in a pool of water with the same concentration of atrazine as the contaminated pond and place the other half of the fertilized eggs in a pool of water that has no atrazine. Monitor the development of the embryos through metamorphosis into adulthood. (B) Place all of the fertilized eggs in a pool of pond water with the same concentration of atrazine as the contaminated pond and compare the number of frogs that reach metamorphosis to those that reach adulthood in the contaminated pond. (C) Allow all fertilized eggs to develop into adults. Expose one-third of the frogs to one-half of the concentration of atrazine in the contaminated pond and expose another one-third of the frogs to the same concentration of atrazine as the contaminated pond. Leave the last one-third of the frogs in water with no atrazine and note any adverse changes in the physical condition of the atrazine-treated frogs in three months. (D) Divide the fertilized eggs into three groups and expose each group to a different concentration of atrazine. Release the eggs back into the contaminated pond and check for metamorphosis after three months.

Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal. GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. -8- Questions 6-10 The food web above represents feeding relationships in a biological community near a deep-sea hydrothermal vent. Hydrothermal vents are geysers on the seafloor th at gush super-heated, mineral-rich water. The seawater surrounding hydrothermal vents typi cally contains carbon dioxide (CO 2), molecular hydrogen (H 2), hydrogen sulfide (H 2S), and methane (CH 4). Sunlight, however, fails to reach the se afloor where deep-sea hydrothermal vents are located. As part of an investigation, researchers collected living specimens from an area near a deep-sea hydrothermal vent. Mussels in the collection were f ound to be dependent on molecular hydroge n in seawater. Also, the researchers discovered multiple species of bacteria living in the gills of the mussels. Mussels use gills for filter-feeding and gas exchange with the surrounding seawater. On the basis of their experimental results, the researchers hypothesized that some bacteria living in the gills of th e mussels are capable of chemosynthesis. 6. Which of the following best explains how biological communities near deep-sea hydrot hermal vents can exist in a habitat lacking sunlight? (A) Environmental conditions on some distant planets resemble those experienced by organisms living near hydrothermal vents. (B) Heterotrophs metabolize carbon-containing compounds produced by the photosynthetic organisms that live on the seafloor. (C) Some organisms rely on energy captured from inorganic compounds to drive basic biological processes. (D) Some organisms that can tolerate high temperatures are single celled, whereas others are multicellular. 7. Based on an analysis of the food web, an observation that deep-sea bacteria consume molecular hydrogen (H 2) is most relevant to resolving which of the following apparent contradictions? (A) Water gushing from deep-sea hydrothermal vents can be as hot as 400 ∞C, which is a lethal temperature for most organisms. (B) Some deep-sea organisms appear to be primary consumers, but no plants live near the hydrothermal vents. (C) Zoarcid fish are thought to be aggressive predators, but they are frequently described as being lazy swimmers. (D) Some tissues of tubeworms contain hemoglobin, which is an oxygen-carrying molecule, but there is little free oxygen at this depth.

Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal. GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. -9- 8. Researchers are investigating the evolutionary relationships among organisms found near deep- sea hydrothermal vents and similar organisms found closer to the ocean surface. Which of the following scientific questions is most relevant to the investigation? (A) What are the nucleotide sequences of ribosomal RNA genes that are found in the genomes of the different species? (B) What large-scale geological events have occurred recently in the Mid-Atlantic Ocean? (C) Does water temperature at different ocean depths affect the relative levels of dissolved oxygen? (D) Do species found near deep-sea hydrothermal vents all have the same haploid number of chromosomes? 9. On the basis of the foo d web, which of the following members of a deep-sea biological community is most likely to also have a symbiotic relationship with chem osynthetic organisms? (A) Octopuses (B) Blind crabs (C) Zoarcid fish (D) Shrimp 10. To refine their model of deep-sea biological communities, the resear chers investigated areas of the seafloor that are distant from any active hydrothermal vents. Which of the following is the best interpretation of the observation that some octopus species are only found near active hydrothermal vents? (A) Octopuses depend indirectly on inorganic compounds in the seawater surrounding hydrothermal vents. (B) Organisms capable of moving across the seafloor are more difficult to observe than are organisms that are rooted in place. (C) Genetic bottleneck events in isolated areas of the deep ocean adversely affect some octopus populations but not others. (D) Biomass in a typical marine food web is expected to b e greater in higher trophic levels than in lower trophic levels.

Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal. GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. -10- 11. On a large volcanic island, researchers are studying a population of annual herbaceous plants. Which of the following observations best supports the prediction that speciation will occur within the existing plant population? (A) Individuals of the species sometimes reproduce asexually by producing runners. (B) Lava has separated the population into two areas: an upland forest and a lowland marsh. (C) Multiple groups of birds depend on the fruit produced by the plants as a source of food. (D) The plants produce more seeds during warm summers than they do during cool summers. 12. Individuals with an inherited autosomal recessive disorder called primary ciliary dyskinesia (PCD) often have severe respirato ry problems due to defective cilia. Males with PCD are often sterile because they produce sperm with defective flagella. Which of the following most likely explains the effect of the recessive allele? (A) The mitochondria are defective and do not produce sufficient protein to synthesize microtubules in the cilia and flagella. (B) The plasma membrane of the alveoli is not permeable to carbon dioxide during respiration because it is too hydrophobic. (C) The Golgi bodies secrete an enzyme that destroys the proteins in the flagella and cilia. (D) The cells do not produce functional motor proteins in flagella and cilia. 13. The diagram below shows energy changes in a specific chemical reaction with and without the addition of an enzyme to the reaction. Which of the following questions can best be answered by the diagram? (A) Does the addition of an enzyme reduce the activation energy required for a reaction? (B) Does the addition of an enzyme result in the formation of covalent bonds? (C) Does the addition of an enzyme produce a greater amount of products? (D) Does the addition of an enzyme change the pathway for the reaction? 14. The salinity of a small inland lake has recently started to increase. Re searchers are planning to study the lake over several decades to investigate how freshwater organisms survive significant changes in their natural habitat. Which of the following physiological mechanisms will the researchers most likely observe among the surviving organisms in the lake? (A) Prokaryotic organisms will use various mechanisms to counteract swelling of cells as a result of increased water uptake. (B) Single-celled organisms will use various mechanisms to counteract the increased flow of water from cells to the environment. (C) Eukaryotic organisms will use various mechanisms to counteract the diffusion of positively charged ions across the cell membrane. (D) Multicellular organisms will use various mechanisms to counteract the loss of cell adhesion as a result of calcium deficiencies.

Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal. GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. -11- 15. Assume there are 50,000 joules (J) of energy availa ble in trophic level II in the figure. According to the conventional model of energy flow in ecosystems, whic h of the following statements correctly describes the flow of energy in the system? (A) Trophic level I generates a maximum of 50,000 J of energy. (B) Trophic level I has approximately 5,000 J of available energy. (C) Trophic level III has approximately 50 J of available energy. (D) Trophic level IV has approxima tely 500 J of available energy.

Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal. GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. -12- Questions 16-20 The three-spined stickleback ( Gasterosteus aculeatus) is a small fish found in both marine and freshwater environments. Marine stickleback populations consist mainly of individuals with armor-like plates covering most of their body surface (completely plated). Approximately 10,000 years ago, some marine sticklebacks colonized freshwater environments. After many ge nerations in the freshwater environments, the freshwater stickleback populations lacked the armor plating (low plated) typical of marine stickleback populations. Over the period between 1957 and 20 05, one freshwater population, in Lake Washington, a lake in a coastal region of the northwestern United States, changed from having a majority of individuals of the low-plated phenotype to having more individuals of the completely-plated phe notype than of the low-plated phenotype. Figure 1 shows the distribution of plated phenotypes in Lake Washington sticklebacks at four time points between 1957 and 2005. A single gene, ectodysplasin (EDA), is thought to be responsible for the va riation in the number of armor plates in sticklebacks. Figure 2 shows a phylogenetic tree constructed by comparing DNA sequences of the EDA gene from a number of stickleback populations with low-plated or completely plated phenotypes. Figure 3 shows a phylogenetic tree constructed by comparing the sequences of 25 genes th at were randomly selected from the same populations as shown in Figure 2. In both figures, shaded populations display the completely plated phenotype.

Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal. GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. -13- 16. Which of the following best explains the differences in the armor of the Lake Washington stickleback population summarized in Figure 1 ? (A) Analysis of somatic cells using chromosomal staining and light microscopy indicates that stickleback fish have a diploid number of 42. (B) Stickleback males from natural freshwater populations are typically more aggressive when competing for mates than are stickleback males from laboratory-bred populations. (C) Fish exhibiting the low-plated phenotype were selected against in the Lake Washington stickleback population over the last 50 years. (D) Migration of individuals from other freshwater environments to Lake Washington led to gene flow between populations that were once geographically isolated. 17. A completely-plated stickleback from a marine population w as mated to a low-plated stickleback from a freshwater population. The resulting F1 hybrids all displayed a completely plated phenotype. When the F1 hybrids were allowed to interbreed, the resulting F 2 generation included completely plated offspring and low-plated offspring in an approximate 3:1 ratio. Which of the following conclusions is best supported by the results of the breeding experiments? (A) Phenotypic variation in the F 2 generation suggests that armor morphology is controlled by many alleles of a single gene. (B) The completely-plated phenotype is controlled by a dominant allele of a single gene. (C) Armor loss is an acquired characteristic that is affected by one or more environmental factors. (D) Patterns of armor plating in stickleback populations are regulated by sex-specific signals. 18. Prior to 1960, Lake Washington was highly polluted and underwater visibility was limited to one or two meters. In the late 1960s, a large cleanup effort reduced pollution, resulting in visibility that increased to six to seven meters by 1976. Which of the following best explains how the change in underwater visibility affected armor plating in Lake Washington sticklebacks between 1957 and 1976 ? (A) Higher visibility allowed sticklebacks to increase their food consumption to make armor production easier. (B) Higher visibility made the sticklebacks more susceptible to large-toothed predators in the lakes, giving complete armor a selective advantage. (C) Clearer water allowed sunlight to penetrate to deeper depths, so the sticklebacks had to increase the amount of armor to protect themselves from the resulting increase in water temperature. (D) Clearer water contained fewer of the molecular building blocks needed for armor production, so sticklebacks showed a reduction in the amount of armor. 19. Evolution of a new trait typically takes many generations. Yet a dramati c shift in the extent of armor plating in the Lake Washington stickleback population occurred in the 50 years following the cleanup of the lake. Which of the following best describes the mechanism of the rapid evolution of the armor phenotype in the Lake Washington sticklebacks? (A) Pollutants in Lake Washington forced the sticklebacks to increase their mutation rate. (B) The rapid change in the Lake Washington ecosystem required individual sticklebacks to evolve complete armor quickly. (C) The increase in visibility in Lake Washington allowed sticklebacks to visually select mates with low armor. (D) New selective pressures favored individuals with the plated phenotype, causing the plated allele frequency in the population to quickly increase.

Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal. GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. -14- 20. The phylogenetic trees in Figures 2 and 3 depict two different phylogenies of the same populations of sticklebacks. Which of the following questions will best help determine which tree represents the most accurate phylogeny? (A) Is the EDA gene as representative of the differences between the populations as the 25 random genes that were examined for Figure 3 ? (B) Are the low-plated populations found only in freshwater and the high-plated populations found only in saltwater environments? (C) Is the common ancestor of the organisms represented in Figure 2 different from the common ancestor of the organisms represented in Figure 3 ? (D) Is the expression level of the EDA gene analyzed in Figure 2 significantly greater than the expression levels of the 25 genes analyzed in Figure 3 ?

Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal. GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. -15- 21. Which of the following occurs in all species of living organisms and may lead to an increase in genetic variation? (A) Mutations in the genome (B) Crossing-over in meiosis (C) Random assortment of chromosomes (D) Alternative splicing of mRNA 22. A researcher examining a root tip observes a plant cell with condensed sister chromatids, kinetochores with attached microtubules, and individual chromosomes that are aligned at the equatorial plate of the cell. Which of the following best describes what the next process will be in the cell? (A) Homologous chromosomes (each with two sister chromatids) will move toward opposite poles of the cell. (B) Paired chromatids will separate, and the new daughter chromosomes will move toward opposite poles of the cell. (C) The nuclear envelope will break down, and the spindle will begin to form. (D) The chromatin will decondense, and the daughter cell will enter interphase. 23. The figure below illustrates a eukaryotic cell. Which of the following best describes how the three structures indicated by the arrows work together? (A) To synthesize lipids and modify toxic substances in order to render them harmless (B) To synthesize and isolate proteins for secretion or for use in the cell (C) To catabolize nutrients and produce ATP for intracellular energy storage (D) To synthesize all ribosomal proteins

Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal. GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. -16- 24. In the following human pedigree, squares represent ma les, circles represent females, and shaded symbols indicate individuals affected with a disorder. One of the affected males from the third generation has a child with a female who is a carrier. For the pedigree shown above, which of the following best expresses the probability that the couple’s first son will be affected with the disorder? (A) 25% (B) 50% (C) 75% (D) 100%

Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal. GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. -17- 25. Chytridiomycosis is a potentially lethal fungal infection that adversely affects some frog populations. The incidence and severity of the fungal infection can va ry over time. Which of the following statements best describes the changes in the frog population that are depicted in the model above? (A) The fungus that infected the frog population was initially virulent but it later became harmless. Based on the trend over the past few years of the study, the fungus has become extinct. (B) Infected individuals gradually died out, and ge netically resistant individuals became more common. The frog population recovered because of the increased frequency of resistant individuals. (C) The patterns of the curves on the graph indicate a sudde n increase in the severity of the fungal infection. A large proportion of the frog population died because the individuals could not evolve fast enough. (D) The size of the frog population decreased sharply upon initial contact with the fungus. The fungus eventually became symbiotic with individual frogs, and the frog population began to recover.

Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal. GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. -18- 26. The Trp operon is a coordinately regulated group of genes (trpA –trpE ) that are required for tryptophan biosynthesis in E. coli. Based on the figure above, which of the following correctly describes the regulation of the Trp operon? (A) In the absence of tryptophan, the repressor is active and binds to the Trp operator, preventing RNA polymerase from transcribing the operon. (B) In the presence of tryptophan, the repressor is active and binds to the Trp operator, preventing RNA polymerase from transcribing the operon. (C) In the absence of tryptophan, the trpR gene is inactive, preventing the production of the repressor that blocks expression of the operon. (D) In the presence of tryptophan, the trpR gene is inactive, preventing the production of the repressor that blocks expression of the operon.

Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal. GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. -19- 27. The pesticide DDT was widely used in the 1940s as a method of insect control. In the late 1950s the first DDT-resistant mosquitoes were discovered, and eventually DDT-resistant mosquitoes were found globally. When DDT is used now, the development of DDT resistance in mosquito populations occurs in months rather than years. Which of the following best explains the observations concerning DDT resistance in mosquitoes? (A) Competition for limited resources causes mosquitoes to migrate to geographical areas that have richer supplies of DDT. (B) The proportion of DDT-resistant mosquitoes in a population remains constant due to the metabolic costs of DDT utilization. (C) Natural selection favors DDT-resistant mosquitoes that are already present in a population when DDT exposure occurs. (D) DDT is a chemical signal that delays normal reproductive cycles in many mosquito populations. 28. Two nutrient solutions are maintained at the same pH. Actively respiring mitochondria are isolated and placed into each of the two solutions. Oxygen gas is bubbled into one sol ution. The other solution is depleted of available oxygen. Which of the following best explains why ATP production is greater in the tube with oxygen than in the tube without oxygen? (A) The rate of proton pumping across the inner mitochondrial membrane is lower in the sample without oxygen. (B) Electron transport is reduced in the absence of a plasma membrane. (C) In the absence of oxygen, oxidative phosphorylation produces more ATP than does fermentation. (D) In the presence of oxygen, glycolysis produces more ATP than in the absence of oxygen.

Questions 29-32 Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal. GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. -20- Table I shows the results of breeding experiments to examin e the inheritance of flower color (purple versus white) and pod shape (inflated versus constricted). For the crosses recorded in Ta ble I, true-breeding parents were crossed to produce F 1 offspring, which were then testcrossed to homozy gous recessive individuals. Table II shows the results of computer-simulated crosses to model the inheritance of leaf shape (broad versus narrow) and flower color (purple versus white). TABLE I: RESULTS FROM CROSSES WITH PEA PLANTS Parental Cross Phenotypes of F 1 Offspring Phenotypes of Testcross Offspring (numbers of individuals) Purple ¥ White Purple Purple (461) White (468) Inflated ¥ Constricted Inflated Inflated (593) Constricted (588) Purple, Inflated ¥ White, Constricted Purple, Inflated Purple, Inflated (315) Purple, Constricted (312) White, Inflated (320) White, Constricted (317) TABLE II: RESULTS OF COMPUTER-SIMULATED CROSSES Parental Cross Phenotypes of F 1 Offspring Phenotypes of Testcross Offspring (numbers of individuals) Broad H Narrow Broad Broad (4870) Narrow (4862) Purple H White Purple Purple (4253) White (4259) Broad, White H  Narrow, Purple Broad, Purple Broad, White (672) Broad, Purple (75) Narrow, White (61) Narrow, Purple (664)

Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal. GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. -21- 29. Based on the data in Table I, which of the following best explains why there are no individuals with constricted pods in the F1 generation? (A) Inflated pod shape is dominant to constricted pod shape. (B) The inflated-pod offspring in the F 1 generation are homozygous. (C) Constricted pod shape typically arises from a new mutation in the F 1 generation. (D) The constricted-pod offspring are carriers for the inflated pod shape allele. 30. In Table I, the ratio of phenotypes in the offspring from the testcross with F 1 plants that had purple flowers and inflated pods suggests that the genes for flower color and pod shape are located (A) close together on the same autosome (B) on the X chromosome (C) on different chromosomes (D) on a mitochondrial chromosome 31. Which of the following provides the best justification for an assumption that might have been used in the computer simulation (Table II) ? (A) The broad allele is recessive to the narrow allele because broad leaves appear in every generation. (B) The purple allele is dominant to the white allele because all the offspring from the cross of purple-flowered and white- flowered plants had purple flowers. (C) The narrow allele is codominant with the purple allele because the purple-flower trait and the narrow-leaf trait segregate together. (D) The white allele is dominant to both the broad and narrow alleles because plants with either type of leaf shape can have white flowers. 32. In Table II, the F1 offspring of the cross between broad-leaved, white-flowered plants with narrow- leaved, purple-flowered plants have a phenotype that differs from that of either parent. However, many testcross offspring have the same phenotype as one of the two plants in the parental cross, but relatively few testcross offspring have the same phenotype as the F 1 offspring. Which of the following best explains the observation? (A) Recombination between the leaf-shape and flower-color genes resulted in chromosomes carrying a dominant allele of both genes. (B) Recombination between the broad and narrow alleles of the leaf-shape gene resulted in chromosomes carrying three different alleles at the same genetic locus. (C) Independent assortment of homologous chromosomes resulted in the combinations of alleles present in the parental generation. (D) The computer model cannot capture the possible assortments of gametes when multiple genes are considered.

Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal. GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. -22- 33. When a stimulus is applied to a receptor in the skin, an action potential is propagated along a neuron to the brain, where another signal is sent back to the muscle for a response. Which of the following best describes what occurs when the action potential reaches a chemical synapse at the end of an axon? (A) The action potential jumps from one axon to the next connecting axon. (B) The action potential travels through the synapse to the next connecting dendrite. (C) The action potential jumps the synapse to the next connecting dendrite. (D) The action potential causes a release of neurotransmitters that travel across the synapse. 34. Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) can be a serious threat to human health. There is evidence that S. aureus infections are common in hospitals and that MRSA have become resistant to other an tibiotics besides methicillin. This suggests that the rapid evolution of resistance in the bacteria poses a serious public-health challenge. Which of the following best explains the ability of MRSA to evade existing drug therapies? (A) MRSA have very long generation times and very large population sizes. (B) MRSA develop new alleles by intentionally introducing specific mutations that will give them a selective advantage over other bacteria. (C) MRSA metabolize many drugs in their lysosomes and therefore evolve resistance at a high rate. (D) MRSA exchange genetic material with other antibiotic-resistant bacteria, which can spread resistance in the S. aureus population.

Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal. GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. -23- Diet Before Change After Change Principal diet Hay Grain Main type of carbohydrate supplied by diet Cellulose Starch Abundance of Streptococcus bovis in the rumen Low High Abundance of Ruminococcus albus in the rumen High Low pH of rumen fluid 6 – 7 < 5.6 Clinical warning signs in cattle None Weakness 35. Researchers conducted a controlled expe riment to investigate the effect of diet on the health of beef cattle. The initial hypothesis was that an abrupt change in diet wi ll benefit beef cattle by reducing the sizes of bacterial populations living in the digestive systems of the cattle. In the experiment, the researchers determined the relative abundance of tw o bacterial species found in the rumen of cattle. The rumen is a part of the stomach that acts as a fermentation chamber in cattle and other ruminants. Shown in the table are the results from before and after an abrupt change in the cattle’s diet. Based on the results, which of the following best explains why the initial hypothesis should be revised? (A) The diets were too similar, since cellulose and starch are both carbohydrates obtained from eating plants. (B) The abundance of one of the bacterial species increased in response to the change in diet. (C) The change in the diversit y of microorganisms had no observable effect on cattle physiology. (D) The ability of rumen fluid to resist changes in pH counteracted the changes in microorganism diversity.

Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal. GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. -24- 36. The table below describes the action of two genes involved in the regulation of nervous system development in the nematode C. elegans. Gene A Gene B Observation Pattern 1 Inactive Inactive No neurons develop. Pattern 2 Inactive Active No neurons develop. Pattern 3 Active Inactive Greater-than-normal number of neurons develop. Pattern 4 Active Active Normal number of neurons develop. Which of the following claims is best supported by the data? (A) Gene A promotes neuron development; gene B promotes programmed cell death in neuronal precursors. (B) Gene A promotes programmed cell deat h in neuronal precursors; gene B promotes neuron development. (C) Gene B must be active before gene A can function. (D) Gene B must be inactive before gene A can function.

Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal. GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. -25- 37. Which of the following diagrams best repr esents hormone-activated gene expression? (A) (B) (C) (D) 38. The bacterium Vibrio cholerae is harmless unless a lysogenic bacteriophage provides the gene coding for the cholera toxin, which converts the bacterium to the virulent form that causes cholera. Which of the following best explains how the gene encoding cholera toxin becomes part of the bacterial genome? (A) The bacteriophage inserts the toxin gene into the host cell DNA, and the gene is expressed with the rest of the host cell’s genes. (B) The bacteriophage makes copies of the toxin gene and expresses the copies inside the bacteriophage. (C) The bacteriophage converts its toxin gene into mRNA, which is then translated by the host cell. (D) The bacteriophage transforms itself into a self-replicating protein that can survive inside the host cell. 39. A species of snail lives in the intertidal zone along the coast of New England. The dark-colored variety of the species is more common in northern New England, the light-colored variety is more common two hundred miles away in southern New England, and both varieties are commonly found together in central New England. Which of the following best explains the observed distribution pattern of the snails? (A) The founder effect suggests that dark-colored snails migrated from the southern regions to the north and established the populations found there. (B) Genetic drift at the shell-color locus caused the northern population to become homozygous for the dark-color allele. (C) The mutation rate is higher in the south, as the longer days expose the snails to more ultraviolet radiation than in the north. (D) Dark-colored snails absorb more solar energy and so survive more re adily in the colder northern waters.

Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal. GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. -26- 40. Which of the following representations best shows a po rtion of an axon at rest (b efore or after an action potential)? (A) (B) (C) (D)

Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal. GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. -27- 41. Precise regulation of specific hor mone levels is required for optimal sperm production in mammals, as summarized in the figure above. Anabolic-androgenic steroi ds (AAS) are synthetic variants of testosterone that are sometimes abused by persons who desire to enhance their athletic performance or alter their physique. Assuming that AAS function in the same way as naturally occurring testosterone, it is most likely that long-term abuse of AAS would (A) stimulate FSH secretion (B) stimulate testosterone production (C) stimulate LH secretion (D) reduce sperm production

Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal. GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. -28- Questions 42-45 Wolves, a top predator, were reintroduced to Yellowstone National Park in 1995 after a 50-year absence. In a multiyear study, the numbers of wolves and elk were monitore d. The data are shown in Figure 1. In two different environments scientists monitored the pe rcent of aspen trees browsed by herbivores (Figure 2) as well as the growth of the trees (Figure 3). The upland environments consist mos tly of flat forested areas. The riparian environments are areas along streams with steep, wooded banks.

Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal. GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. -29- 42. Based on the data, which of the following is the best explanation for the changes in the elk population size between 2000 and 2005 ? (A) The heights of aspen trees increased during that time period. (B) Predation by wolves was higher than before 1995. (C) The numbers of aspen trees increased during that time period. (D) Wolf populations increased more rapidly in the upland areas. 43. Which of the following predictions about the community is most likely true? (A) A decrease in the elk population will cause wolves to feed on aspen trees. (B) An increase in the wolf population will lead to a decrease in aspen growth. (C) An increase in the growth of aspens will lead to a decrease in the wolf population. (D) A decrease in the wolf population will lead to a decrease in the mean aspen height. 44. Based on the data, which of the following behaviors in elk could account fo r the differences between the percent of aspens browsed by herbivores and the height of aspen trees in riparian and upland environments? (A) Elk tend to avoid riparian areas where the steep, wooded riverbanks make it difficult to escape predators. (B) Elk tend to prefer riparian areas where there is easy access to water. (C) Elk tend to avoid upland areas where trees are too tall to be easily eaten. (D) Elk tend to prefer upland areas where there are richer sources of mineral nutrients, such as potassium and iodine. 45. Which of the following models best predicts the effect on the ecosystem if a deadly communicable disease is introduced into the wolf population? (A) (B) (C) (D)

Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal. GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. -30- 46. Information is transmitted through the nervous system when one neuron signa ls another neuron. The structure of neurons enables transmission to proceed quickly and efficiently. Which of the following diagrams correctly identifies both the structure of neurons and the direction of information flow between neurons? Presynaptic Postsynaptic (A) (B) (C) (D)

47. A series of crosses is performed with fruit flies (Drosophila melanogaster ) to examine inheritance of the genes vestigial ( vg ) and cinnabar (cn ). The recessive vg allele causes small, malformed wings called vestigial wings. The recessive cn allele causes bright-red eyes called cinnabar eyes. In the first cross, a female with wild-type wings and eyes is mated with a male with vestig ial wings and cinnabar eyes. All Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal. GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. -31- the F 1 individuals have wild-type wings and eyes. In the second cross, female F 1 flies are mated with males with vestigial wings and cinnabar eyes. The phenotypes of 500 F 2 individuals are shown in the table. Phenotype Number of Individuals Wild-type wings, wild-type eyes 226 Wild-type wings, cinnabar eyes 25 Vestigial wings, wild-type eyes 26 Vestigial wings, cinnabar eyes 223 Which of the following is the most likely explanation of the results? (A) The two genes are located on two different chromosomes. (B) The two genes are sex-linked. (C) The two genes are located on mitochondrial DNA. (D) The two genes are linked on an autosome.

Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal. GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. -32- 48. The graph above shows changes in glucagon and insulin secretions at different concentrations of blood glucose. Which of the following feedback mechanisms is best supported by the data? (A) A falling glucagon level causes a rise in the insulin level, which maintains equal amounts of both hormones in the blood. (B) A high glucagon level causes a rise in the insulin level, which maintains high levels of both hormones in the blood. (C) A low glucose level causes the release of glucagon, which stimulates the release of more glucose from tissues, which in turn lowers the amount of glucagon being released. (D) A low glucose level causes the release of insulin, which stimulates the release of more glucose from tissues, which in turn increases the amount of insulin being released. 49. Which of the following best describes an advantage that eukaryote organisms have over prokaryote organisms? (A) Prokaryotes lack a cell membrane and therefore are unable to control what enters or exits the cell. (B) Eukaryotes have a nuclear envelope separating their DNA from the rest of the cell, which increases the likelihood of advantageous mutations. (C) Eukaryotes have mitochondria and chloroplasts that contain their own genome, which allows the cells to reproduce more rapidly. (D) Eukaryotes have organelles that allow for compartmentalization of cellular processes, which increases the efficiency of those processes. 50. Gregor Mendel’s pioneering genetic experiments with pea plants occurred before the discovery of the structure and function of chromosomes. Which of the following observations about inheritance in pea plants could be explained only after the discovery that genes may be linked on a chromosome? (A) Pea color and pea shape display independent inheritance patterns. (B) Offspring of a given cross show all possible combinations of traits in equal proportions. (C) Most offspring of a given cross have a combination of traits that is identical to that of either one parent or the other. (D) Recessive phenotypes can skip a generation, showing up only in the parental and F 2 generations.

Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal. GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. -33- 51. In animals, the hox genes encode a family of transcription factor s that are important for pr oper development of embryonic segments and are widely c onserved in orga nisms. The figure below shows the embryonic segments in which one such gene, Hoxc6 , is expressed in the embryo of a mouse, a chick, and a goose. Embryonic segments are counted from the anterior end. During the formation of vertebrae, the mo st anterior embryonic segment that expresses Hoxc6 marks the end of the cervical (neck) vertebrae and the beginning of the thoracic (rib) vertebrae. All mammals have seven cervical vertebrae. Which of the following statements is most likely to be true? (A) The chick and the goose have the same number of thoracic vertebrae. (B) The most anterior expression of Hoxc6 is the eighth vertebra in mammals. (C) Hoxc6 is expressed in the same embryoni c segments in birds and mammals. (D) Hoxc6 is expressed in the sa me vertebra at the anterior end of all bird embryos.

Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal. GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. -34- 52. The process depicted in the image above is best summarized by which of the following descriptions? (A) During the synthesis phase of the cell cycle, DNA mol ecules replicate to generate identical daughter cells. (B) Centromeres align specific gene sequences of homologous chromosomes during mitotic divisions. (C) The spindle apparatus attaches at chiasma during metaphase of mitosis. (D) During meiosis, crossing over leads to recombination of alleles between homologous chromosomes.

Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal. GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. -35- 53. A biologist is studying territoriality in three related species of birds found in the same section of a forest. For each observed pair of nesting adults, th e biologist measured the distance to the next closest nesting pair of the same species (nearest-neighbor distance). An analys is of the results is shown in the table below. Species Mean Nearest- Neighbor Distance (km) Median Nearest- Neighbor Distance (km) Range of Nearest- Neighbor Distances (km) I 0.35 0.470.25–0.50 II 0.31 0.320.30–0.32 III 0.80 1.100.10–1.50 Which of the following would be most appropriate for id entifying the species with the most even distribution of nests? (A) Area of the forest in which the n earest-neighbor measurements were made (B) Total number of nearest-neighbor observa tions collected during the study period (C) Standard deviation of the neares t-neighbor distances for each species (D) Proportion of nearest-neighbor distances that were less than the median

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. -36- Directions: The next five questions, numbered 121–125, require numeric answers. Determine the correct answer for each question and ente r it in the grid on page 3 of the answer sheet. Use the following gui delin es for entering your answers. • Start your answer in any column, space permitting. Unused columns should be left blank. • Write your answer in the boxes at the top of the grid and fill in the corresponding circles. Mark only one circle in any column. You will receive credit only if the circles are filled in completely. • Provide your answer in the format specified by the question. The requested answer may be an integer, a decimal, or a fraction, and it may have a negative value. • To enter a fraction, use one of the division slashes to separate the nu merator from the denominator, as shown in the example below. Fractions only need to be reduced enough to fit in the grid. • Do not enter a mixed number, as this will be scored as a fraction. For example, 2 1/2 (two and one-half) will be scored as 21/2 (twenty-one halves).

121. Researchers observe a large population of birds on a remote island. Birds in the population are found to have either red crest feathers or white crest feathers on their heads. Genetic analysis indicates that the allele for red crest feathers is dominant over the allele for white crest feathers. In a survey of the population, the researchers determine the frequencies of the crest-feather phenotypes. The results of the survey are shown in the table below. Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal. GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. -37- PHENOTYPE FREQUENCIES IN AN ISOLATED BIRD POPULATION Phenotype Number of Individuals Red crest feathers 11,088 White crest feathers 1,759 Assuming that the bird population is in Hardy- Weinberg equilibrium, wh at proportion of future populations is expected to be heterozygous for the allele controlling crest feather color? Give your answer as a value between 0 and 1, rounded to two decimal places.

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